SSC Section Officers (Audit) Exam : Solved Paper

General Awareness : Solved Paper

1. Capital formation in an economy depends on:
(A) Total Income
(B) Total demand
(C) Total savings
(D) Total production
Ans : (D)

2. If the tax rate increases with the higher level of Income, it shall be called:
(A) Proportional tax
(B) Progressive tax
(C) Lump sum tax
(D) Regressive tax
Ans : (A)

3. Who painted the master piece Hamsa Damayanti?
(A) Anjolie Ela Menon
(B) Abanindranath Tagore
(C) Amrita Shergill
(D) Raja Ravi Varma
Ans : (D)

4. In India, one-rupee coins and notes and sub sidiary coins are issued by:
(A) the Reserve Bank of India
(B) the Central Government
(C) the State Bank of India
(D) the United Trust of India
Ans : (A)

5. Which is the highest body that approves Five Year Plans in the country?
(A) Planning Committee
(B) Union Cabinet
(C) Parliament
(D) National Development Council
Ans : (D)

6. In India, population density is defined as the number of persons:
(A) per square mile
(B) per lakh square mile
(C) per lakh square kilometre
(D) per square kilometre
Ans : (D)

7. Prime cost is equal to:
(A) Variable cost plus administrative cost
(B) Variable cost plus fixed costs
(C) Variable cost only
(D) Fixed cost only
Ans : (B)

8. New capital issue is placed in:
(A) Secondary market
(B) Grey market
(C) Primary market
(D) Black market
Ans : (C)

9. Bank deposits that can be withdrawn without notice are called:
(A) account payee deposits
(B) fixed deposits
(C) variable deposits
(D) demand deposits
Ans : (D)

10. An expenditure that has been made and cannot be recovered is called:
(A) Variable cost
(B) Opportunity cost
(C) Sunk cost
(D) Operational cost
Ans : (C)

11. The practice of selling goods in a foreign country at a price below their domestic selling price is called:
(A) diplomacy
(B) discrimination
(C) dumping
(D) double pricing
Ans : (C)

12. Who propounded the 'market law'?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) J.B. Say
(C) T.R. Malthus
(D) David Recardo
Ans : (B)

13. Which is NOT a Central Service?
(A) Indian Police Service
(B) Indian Foreign Service
(C) Indian Audit & Accounts Service
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

14. Triple vaccine is administered to a new-born child to immunize it against:
(A) whooping cough, tetanus and measles
(B) whooping cough, tetanus and diphtheria
(C) tetanus, diphtheria, measles and rubella
(D) tetanus, diphtheria, small pox and rubella
Ans : (B)

15. The book "Unto the Last" which influenced Gandhi was authored by:
(A) Boris Yeltsin
(B) John Ruskin
(C) Pushkin
(D) Ruskin Bond
Ans : (B)

16. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the institution of Panchayati Raj?
(A) Article 36
(B) Article 39
(C) Article 40
(D) Article 48
Ans : (C)

17. Which of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom?.
(A) Mandamus
(B) Habeas Corpus
(C) Quo-Warranto
(D) Certiorari
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following does not have an influence over the climate in India?
(A) Monsoons
(B) Ocean currents
(C) Nearness to equator
(D) Presence of Indian Ocean
Ans : (B)

19. How many minutes for each degree of longitude does the local time of any place vary from the Greenwich time?
(A) Two minutes
(B) Four minutes
(C) Six minutes
(D) Eight minutes
Ans : (B)

20. The concept of 'General Will' was advocated by:
(A) Hume
(B) Hegel
(C) Kant
(D) Rousseau
Ans : (D)

21. Who is the highest civil servant of the Union Government?
(A) Attorney-General
(B) Cabinet Secretary
(C) Home Secretary
(D) Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister
Ans : (B)

22. Article 1 of the Constitution declares India as:
(A) Federal State
(B) Quasi-Federal State
(C) Unitary State
(D) Union of States
Ans : (A)

23. Which functionary can be invited to give his opinion in the Parliament?
(A) Attorney-General of India
(D) Chief Justice of India
(C) Chief Election Commissioner of India
(D) Comptroller & Auditor General of India
Ans : (A)

24. Which of the following countries have an Unwritten Constitution?
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) Pakistan
(D) India
Ans : (A)

25. Lothal is a site where dockyards of which of the following civilization were found?
(A) Indus Valley
(B) Mesopotamian
(C) Egyptian
(D) Persian
Ans : (A)

26. The world famous 'Peacock Throne' was kept in which of the following Mughal buildings?
(A) Diwan-i-Khas at Fatehpur Sikri
(B) New Agra Fort
(C) The Rang Mahal of the Red Fort at Delhi
(D) The Diwan-i-Am of the Red Fort at Delhi
Ans : (D)

27. Which was the birth place of Guru Nanak?
(A) Gurdaspur
(B) Amritsar
(C) Lahore
(D) Talwandi
Ans : (D)

28. Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das were the founder-members of the:
(A) Communist Party of India
(B) Forward Block
(C) Socialist-Swarajist Party
(D) Swarajya Party
Ans : (D)

29. The immortal national song ‘Bande Mataram’ has been written by:
(A) Rabindranath Tagore .
(B) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyaya
(C) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya
(D) Surendranath Bandopadhyaya
Ans : (C)

30. The Mohemmadan Anglo-Oriental College at Aligarh was founded by:
(A) Md. Ali Jinnah
(B) Mohammad Ali
(C) Saukat Ali
(D) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
Ans : (D)

31. Who among the following is generally regarded as the pioneer of Local Self-Government in Modern India?
(A) Ripon
(B) Lytton
(C) Mayo
(D) Curzon
Ans : (A)

32. Which one of the following was not a French settlement in India:
(A) Pondicherry
(B) Mahe
(C) Goa
(D) Chandarnagar
Ans : (C)

33. The famous Kohinoor diamond was produced from one of the mines in:
(A) Orissa
(B) Chhota Nagpur
(C) Bijapur
(D) Golconda
Ans : (D)

34. 'Buddha' means:
(A) The Awakened
(B) The Religious Preacher
(C) The Genius
(D) The Powerful
Ans : (A)

35. Gandhiji considered Khadi as a symbol of:
(A) industrialisation
(B) economic independence
(C) economic growth
(D) moral purity
Ans : (B)

36. "India Wins Freedom" is the autobiography of:
(A) Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Muhammad Ali
(C) Zakir Hussain
(D) Syed Ahmad Khan
Ans : (A)

37. A high growth rate of population is characterised by:
(A) high birth and high death rates
(B) high birth and low death rates
(C) low birth and low death rates
(D) low birth and high death rates
Ans : (B)

38. The Indian Sub-continent was originally a part of:
(A) Jurassic-land
(B) Angara-land
(C) Arya-varta
(D) Gondwana-land
Ans : (D)

39. The tropical grassland is called:
(A) Pampas
(B) Llanas
(C) Savanah
(D) Veld
Ans : (C)

40. The atmosphere is heated mainly by:
(A) Insolation
(B) Conduction
(C) Radiation
(D) Convection
Ans : (C)

41. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of uranium in the world?
(A) Canada
(B) South Africa
(C) Namibia
(D) U.S.A.
Ans : (A)

42. Which of the following methods does not help in conserving soil fertility and moisture?
(A) Contour ploughing
(B) Dry farming
(C) Strip cropping
(D) Shifting agriculture
Ans : (B)

43. In a slanting hilly Indian terrain experiencing more than 200 cms of annual rainfall, which one of the following crops can be cultivated best?
(A) Cotton
(B) Jute
(C) Tobacco
(D) Tea
Ans : (D)

44. Mudumalai Wild-life Sanctuary is located in the State of:
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (C)

45. The narrow stretch of water connecting two Seas is called:
(A) Bay
(B) Peninsula
(C) Isthamus
(D) Strait
Ans : (D)

46. Naga, Khasi and Garo hills are located in:
(A) Purvanchal Ranges
(B) Karakoram Ranges
(C) Zaskar Ranges
(D) Himalaya Ranges
Ans : (D)

47. Laws of heredity was put forward by:
(A) Mendel
(B) Mendeleev
(C) Pavlov
(D) Koch
Ans : (A)

48. A device used for converting a.c. into d.c. is called:
(A) transformer
(B) rectifier
(C) induction oil
(D) dynamo
Ans : (B)

49. Which one of the following can be synthesized by Liver7
(A) Vitamin-A
(B) Vitamin-E
(C) Vitamin-D
(D) Vitamin-K
Ans : (A)

50. Fluid part of blood devoid of corpuscles is called:
(A) Tissue fluid
(B) Plasma
(C) Serum
(D) Lymph
Ans : (B)

51. Which of the following books is written by A.P.J. Abdul Kalam?
(A) Developing India
(B) Science in Today's India
(C) Defence set up in India
(D) Guiding Souls: Dialogues on the purpose of life
Ans : (D)

52. Heart murmur indicates a:
(A) defective valve
(B) poor oxygenation
(C) dislocation of the heart
(D) improper development of muscles
Ans : (A)

53. The language used in writing the scientific name of animals is:
(A) French
(B) Latin
(C) German
(D) Dutch
Ans : (B)

54. The 2008 Olympics will be held in:
(A) Paris
(B) London
(C) Beijing
(D) Lisbon
Ans : (C)

55. Which of the following are not grown in the Kharif season?
(A) Bajra and rice
(B) Maize and jowar
(C) Barley and mustard
(D) ]owar and rice
Ans : (C)

56. In India, rain forests are found in:
(A) Central India
(B) Eastern Ghat
(C) N.E. Himalayas and Western Ghats
(D) N.W. Himalayas and Eastern Ghats
Ans : (C)

57. By-product obtained by soap-industry is:
(A) Caustic soda
(B) Glycerol
(C) Naphthalene
(D) Caustic potash
Ans : (D)

58. Ripe grapes contain:
(A) Fructose
(B) Sucrose
(C) Galactose
(D) Glucose
Ans : (A)

59. Polythene is polymer of:
(A) Ethylene
(B) Propylene
(C) Acetylene
(D) Aniline
Ans : (A)

60. Rayon is made from:
(A) Plastic
(B) Gasoline
(C) Petroleum
(D) Cellulose
Ans : (D)

61. Which one of the following is pure water?
(A) Rain water
(B) Filter water
(C) Tubewell water
(D) Distilled water
Ans : (D)

62. Which silver salt is used for making film for photography?
(A) Silver bromide
(B) Silver chloride
(C) Silver sulphate
(D) Silver nitrate
Ans : (A)

63. Which is used for settling muddy water?
(A) Common salt
(B) Common alum
(C) Aluminium powder
(D) Bleaching powder
Ans : (B)

64. Which is widely used in the plastic industry for manufacturing bakelite?
(A) Ethyl alcohol
(B) Phenol
(C) Orth-cresol
(D) Catechol
Ans : (B)

65. The Round Table Conference at London met for the discussion of:
(A) Provision of Provincial Autonomy
(B) A future Constitution of India
(C) Gandhi's demands for calling off Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) Congress claim to be the sole representative of Indians
Ans : (A)

66. To an astronaut sky appears:
(A) white
(B) rich blue
(C) light blue
(D) dark
Ans : (D)

67. The instrument used to measure the speed of the wind is:
(A) Altimeter
(B) Anemometer
(C) Chronometer
(D) Dosimeter
Ans : (B)

68. Who defined the law of gravitation?
(A) Newton
(B) Archimedes
(C) Galileo
(D) Faraday
Ans : (A)

69. The metal used to make lightning conductors is:
(A) Iron
(B) Aluminium
(C) Copper
(D) Zinc
Ans : (C)

70. 'IC' in computers stands for:
(A) Integrated Charge
(B) Integrated Current
(C) Integrated Circuits.
(D) Internal Circuits
Ans : (C)

Symbiosis Entrance Test (SET), 2007

General Awareness : Solved Paper

1. Which is the first Indian bank to get approval to start normal banking operation in China?
(A) Indian Bank
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) Corporation Bank
(D) State Bank of India
Ans : (D)

2. Saint Gobain is a French—
(A) Glass maker
(B) Perfume
(C) Tourist spot
(D) Saint
Ans : (A)

3. Mercedes sedans are assembled in which town of Maharashtra?
(A) Nashik
(B) Baramatti
(C) Pimpri
(D) Pune
Ans : (D)

4. The company whose chemical plant in Bhopal had a disastrous gas leak in 1984 was—
(A) Carbide Ltd
(B) Union Carbide
(C) Deepak Fertilizer
(D) Saurashtra Chemicals
Ans : (B)

5. Business Line is the name of the newspaper that belongs to the stable of—
(A) The Times of India
(B) The Hindu
(C) Hindustan Times
(D) The Indian Express
Ans : (B)

6. 'Know Now'. This is the base line of a brand, 150 years old, that is in the business of providing information to its customers. Which company?
(A) Reuters
(B) Dow Jones
(C) AFP
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following companies has started a rural marketing network called "e-chaupal'?
(A) ITC
(B) Dabur
(C) Hindustan Lever
(D) Procter & Gamble
Ans : (A)

8. C.K. Prahalad, praising their supply chain, described them as "a model of managerial and organizational simplicity." Whom did he refer to?
(A) Maharashtra's sabji mandis
(B) Mumbai's Dabbawallahs
(C) Fast food joints of Mumbai
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

9. In 1987, when faced with tough competition from an unlikely player, the top brass of Hindustan lever plotted a strategy to inhibit its growth. They called it project STING. Who was the competitor?
(A) Rin
(B) Ariel
(C) Nirma
(D) Tide
Ans : (C)

10. Which famous corporate's head quarters is known as Bush House—
(A) CNN
(B) CNBC
(C) BBC
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

11. The countries included in the 6-party talk regarding the Nuclear programme of North Korea are—
(A) US, Canada, China, North Korea, South Korea and Japan
(B) US, Russia, China, North Korea, South Korea and Japan
(C) US, Russia, UK, France, North Korea and South Korea
(D) US, UK, North Korea, South Korea and Japan
Ans : (B)

12. Which of the following is measured on the Richter scale?
(A) Density of liquids
(B) Magnitude of earthquakes
(C) Velocity of tornadoes
(D) Height of mountains
Ans : (B)

13. For a time difference of one hour the longitudinal distance is equal to—
(A) 1 degree
(B) 4 degrees
(C) 10 degrees
(D) 15 degrees
Ans : (A)

14. Which of the following is the first surface-to-surface missile in India?
(A) Prithvi
(B) Trishul
(C) Agni
(D) Nag
Ans : (A)

15. CTBT is a term related to—
(A) Nuclear Weapons
(B) Taxes
(C) Space Research
(D) Railway Goods
Ans : (A)

16. How many Stock Exchanges in India are recognized by government of India?
(A) 24
(B) 36
(C) 20
(D) 15
Ans : (A)

17. WMD stands for—
(A) Weapons of Mass Destruction
(B) World Minerals Directory
(C) Wildlife Management Director
(D) World Monetary Distributors
Ans : (A)

18. Thumbelina was recently in news for—
(A) Being declared as the world's smallest horse
(B) Being declared as the best fairy tale
(C) Being the latest addition in Mobile Technology
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

19. EYCIN is—
(A) Ointment for dissolving Cataract
(B) Eye-controlled Interaction with Computer
(C) Acronym for Interaction of European Youth Community
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

20. The Kamakhya temple is situated in—
(A) Madurai in Tamil Nadu
(B) Guwahati in Assam
(C) Trichur in Kerala
(D) Halebid in Karnataka
Ans : (B)

21. The unit cell of nervous system is—
(A) Axons
(B) Dendrites
(C) Neuron
(D) Neuralgia
Ans : (C)

22. What is the life expectancy in India?
(A) 30 years
(B) 40 years
(C) 62 years
(D) 80 years
Ans : (C)

23. Present National Health Programme is—
(A) Sinusitis eradication programme
(B) Fertility control programme
(C) Polio eradication programme
(D) Malnutrition eradication programme
Ans : (C)

24. The interchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and tissues is called—
(A) Excretion
(B) Respiration
(C) Perspiration
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

25. The kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder and urethra are the organs of—
(A) Respiratory System
(B) Excretory System
(C) Reproductive System
(D) Digestive System
Ans : (B)

26. Platelets is associated with—
(A) Synovial fluid
(B) Blood
(C) Cerebrospinal Fluid
(D) Bile
Ans : (B)

27. The considerable decrease in number of Red Blood Cells leads to a condition known as—
(A) Anaemia
(B) Leucocytosis
(C) Hernia
(D) Hypertension
Ans : (A)

28. The lack of insulin results in to—
(A) Hepatitis
(B) Sinusitis
(C) Diabetes
(D) Meningitis
Ans : (C)

29. The fluid part of the blood is known as—
(A) Haemoglobin
(B) Plasma
(C) Erythrocytes
(D) Leucocytes
Ans : (B)

30. The main activity/activities of digestive system is—
(A) Ingestion
(B) Digestion
(C) Elimination
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

31. The process of writing computer instructions in a programming language is known as—
(A) Coding
(B) Processing
(C) Programming
(D) File
Ans : (A)

32. A program used to start the computer is—
(A) Compiler
(B) System software
(C) Boot
(D) Interpreter
Ans : (B)

33. The main function(s) of CAD is (are)—
(A) Drafting
(B) Geometric modelling
(C) Documentation
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)

34. A circuit which can store information is known as—
(A) Integrated circuit
(B) Chip
(C) Memory cell
(D) Accumulator
Ans : (A)

35. An important character of memory is—
(A) Access time
(B) Real time
(C) Delay time
(D) Down time
Ans : (B)

36. A computer requires a set of instructions, called ………………..which tells the computer how to perform a particular task—
(A) Software
(B) Interpreter
(C) Compiler
(D) Controller
Ans : (A)

37. A……………….converts text or images on paper documents into an electronic format that the computer can display, print and store.
(A) Disk formatter
(B) Modem
(C) Scanner
(D) Graphic storage device
Ans : (C)

38. People who illegally copy, distribute, or modify software are called?
(A) Hackers
(B) Software pirates
(C) Emulators
(D) Debuggers
Ans : (B)

39. The smallest unit of information in a computer is a—
(A) Byte
(B) Character
(C) Bit
(D) Word
Ans : (C)

40. Which of the following is not a computer language?
(A) Windows 98
(B) PASCAL
(C) FORTRAN
(D) C++
Ans : (A)

41. Who is the Union Minister for Law in India?
(A) V.K. Bharadwaj
(B) Hansraj Bharadwaj
(C) Arun Jaitley
(D) Ram Jethmalani
Ans : (B)

42. In the Jessica Lal Murder Case one of the following persons was held guilty.
(A) Anuj Sharma
(B) Manu Sharma
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

43. TADA stands for—
(A) Terrorist and Disruptive Activities
(B) Terrorist Arms Disruptive Activities
(C) Trade of Arms, Disturbance Act
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

44. The person to be elected as the President of India should be of at least—
(A) Twenty-five years of age
(B) Thirty-five years of age
(C) Forty-five years of age
(D) Forty years of age
Ans : (B)

45. One of the following rights is not a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution—
(A) Right to life
(B) Right to equality
(C) Freedom of speech and expression
(D) Right to property
Ans : (D)

46. All the contracts of the government of India are made in the name of—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Home Minister
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

47. The subject matter of Right to Information Act is—
(A) Information & Technology
(B) Political Information
(C) Official Documents
(D) All of them
Ans : (C)

48. The Information Technology Act was passed in the year—
(A) 2000
(B) 1999
(C) 2005
(D) 2001
Ans : (A)

49. One of the following is the most essential ingredient for enforceability of Contract—
(A) Exchange
(B) Currency
(C) Consent
(D) Free Consent
Ans : (C)

50. If the President wishes to resign, to whom should he address the resignation?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Vice President
(D) Either (A) or (C)
Ans : (C)

Uttar Pradesh P.C.S (Pre) Exam : Solved Paper

Public Administration : Solved Paper
(Held On 9-12-2006)


1. While preparing the Budget the Ministry of Finance asks from the Ministries of the Government—
(A) Actual figures of previous year
(B) Sanctioned and revised estimates of the current year
(C) Estimates for the next year
(D) All the above

2. Which of the following state-ments about the significance of Public Administration are cor-rect ?
1. Public Administration is a good creative force in the man’s welfare as its ideal.
2. No Government can exist without administration.
3. One of the main functions of administration is to facilitate social change.
4. Beneficiariesofadministration are almost negligible.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

3. Which one of the following has been suggested by Henri Fayol as an alternative to ‘Through proper channel’ ?
(A) Grapevine
(B) Gangplank
(C) Gossip
(D) Graphic

4. The book “Public Administration in a Time of Turbulence” talks about—
(A) Crisis of American Demo-cracy
(B) New Public Administration
(C) Technological applications in Public Administration
(D) Politics Administration Dichotomy

5. Which one of the following is important features of New Public Administration’ ?
(A) Structural adjustment
(B) Social relevance
(C) Scientific selection of employee
(D) Rationality in decision mak-ing

6. Administration does not in-clude—
(A) Group activity
(B) Co-operation among the members of the group
(C) Co-ordination among activi-ties of participants
(D) Equal participation of mem-bers of the group

7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Woodrow Wilson has defined Administration as a detailed and systematic appli-cation of law.
Reason (R) : Every specific appli-cation of law is not administra-tion.
In the context of the above sentences which of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

8. Who of the following believed that ‘administration essentially involved reconciliation, involv-ing individuals as well as social groups’ ?
(A) Chester Barnard
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) M. P. Follet

9. Arrange the following in their correct chronological sequence by using the code given at the end—
1. Minnowbrook Conference
2. Hawthorne Experiments
3. Scientific Management Move-ment
4. Michigan Research
5. Comparative Administration Group
code :
(A) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
(B) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
(D) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3

10. Which of the following factors are responsible for the increasing importance of Public Adminis-tration in modern times ?
1. Emergence of Welfare State.
2. Scientific and technological advancement.
3. Rapid increase in population.
4. Economic planning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

11. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The distinction between Public and Private Administrat ion is narrowing down.
Reason (R) : The New Public Administration stresses upon public choice approach.
Inthecontext of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

12. Each Department-related Stand-ing Committee of the Indian Parliament consists of—
(A) 20 members from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
(B) 30 members from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha
(C) 45 members from only Lok Sabha
(D) 40 Members from only Rajya Sabha

13. Characteristics of Line agencies include—
1. They perform functions necessary to accomplish objectives.
2. They possess authority to issue directives.
3. They come in direct contact with people.
4. They do not come in conflict with staff agencies.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

14. Which one of the following state-ments is not correct regarding the functions and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor Gene-ral of India ?
(A) He examines the accounts of the Union Government and sub-mits his report to the President
(B) He examines the accounts of the State Governments and submits his report to the Governor of the concerned State
(C) He exercises administrative control over the Audit Officers of the State Governments
(D) If any House needs any information from him, he makes it available through Public Accounts Committee

15. The principles of communication as suggested by Chester Barnard include—
1. Channels of communication should be defined.
2. Line of communication must be as direct and short as possible.
3. Line of communication must function without interruption.
4. Communicators serving the system should be trained periodically.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

16. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Herzberg calls satisfiers as intrinsic factors.
Reason (R) : His studies identi-fied ‘dissatisfiers which are called as extrinsic factors’.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

17. Which one of the following is not an assumption of theory ‘y’ as propounded by McGregor ?
(A) Work is as natural as play and rest for human being
(B) Average human being seeks responsibility
(C) Human potentialities are partially utilised by organisa-tions
(D) Human being wants more security than liberty

18. The idea of ‘Bounded rationality in decision making’ was deve-loped by—
(A) Lindblom
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Dror
(D) Chester Barnard

19. Match List-I with List-II and selectthe correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(Theories)
(a) Achievement motivation
(b) Expectancy
(c) Equity
(d) ERG

List-II
(Authors)
1. Victor Vroom
2. Alderfer
3. David McClelland
4. J. Stay Adams
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 4 2 1

20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(Models of Decision)
(a) Bounded Rationality Model
(b) Incremental Model
(c) Mixed Scanning Model
(d) Optimal Model

List-II
(Propounder)
1. Dror
2. Etizioni
3. Lindblom
4. Herbert Simon
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 2 4 3 1

21. The concept of ‘Linking Pin’ was propounded by—
(A) Mayo
(B) Likert
(C) Herzberg
(D) Maslow

22. Who of the following charac-terises the powers and authority of bureaucracy as ‘New Des-potism’ ?
(A) Harold Laski
(B) Ramsay Muir
(C) Lord Hewart
(D) Lord Acton

23. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In Barnard’s view Authority is not a command but the acceptance of the order by the juniors.
Reason (R) : Behaviouralists believe that Hierarchy is the best way to command and control juniors.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

24. The Path-Goal theory of leader-ship was developed by—
(A) Evans and Robert House
(B) Alderfer and Evans
(C) Hersey and Blanchard
(D) Blake and Mouton

25. Consider the following two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : Co-ordination is collective action of persons while co-operation is synchronization of efforts.
Reason (R) : Co-ordination results in harmonious and uni-fied actions to a stated objective.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

26. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A sound recruit-ment policy is a must for proper and effective personnel admini-stration.
Reason (R) : A neutral personnel system ensures efficiency in administration.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

27. Which of the following are safe-guards against the evils of bureaucracy ?
1. Decentralisation of authority.
2. Fair and efficient personnel management.
3. Centralisation of authority.
4. Effective control of the Parliament and Cabinet.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four

28. James Buchanan and Gordon Tullock are associated with—
(A) Public Choice Theory
(B) New Public Management
(C) Good Governance
(D) Entrepreneurial Govern-ment

29. Who of the following thinkers is known as ‘Prophet in Manage-ment’ ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Mary Parker Follet
(C) Elton Mayo
(D) F. W. Taylor

30. Which one of the following state-mentsisnotapplicableto Herbert Simon’s decision making model ?
(A) Administrative man maxi-mises.
(B) Factual elements can be evaluated.
(C) Most decisions are com-posite.
(D) Decisions can be influenced.

31. Four systems of leadership were developed by—
(A) Keith Davis
(B) Likert
(C) Robert House
(D) Fred Fiedler

32. Match List-I with List-II in respect of difference between Public Administration and Pri-vate Administration and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(Views of )
(a) Paul H. Appleby
(b) Sir Josia Stamp
(c) Herbert Simon
(d) Peter Drucker

List-II
(Difference on account of)
1. Red-tape
2. Performance management
3. Public accountability
4. Service motive
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 1 4 2

33. Which one of the following statements about the training of personnel is not correct ?
(A) It is an investment in human resource development.
(B) Training can be only formal.
(C) It is a tool of improving the efficiency of personnel.
(D) It helps to raise the morale of personnel.

34. Which one of the following areas was not recommended by the Administrative Reforms Com-mission for creation of All India Specialist Services ?
(A) Economic Administration
(B) Industrial Administration
(C) Agriculture and Rural Deve-lopment
(D) Urban employment and poverty alleviation.

35. According to Riggs ‘Sala’ repre-sents—
(A) The administrative sub-system of a prismatic society.
(B) The administrative sub-system of a diffracted society.
(C) The administrative sub- system of a fused society.
(D) The administrative sub-system of a democratic society.

36. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The Rajamannar Committee recommended the abolition of IAS and IPS.
Reason (R) : The IAS and IPS violate the principles of fede-ralism and ministerial responsi-bility at the State level.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

37. Recruitment to the lower ranks of Civil Services is made by—
(A) Administrative Staff College
(B) Ministry of Personnel
(C) Staff Selection Commission
(D) Union Public Service Com-mission

38. The Theory of Scientific Mana-gement basically deals with—
(A) Human behaviour
(B) The best way
(C) Cybernatic system
(D) Informal groups

39. Mid-career training in the IAS and IPS helps in developing—
1. Conceptual skills
2. Professional skills
3. Behavioural skills
4. Pedagogical skills
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4

40. Which one of the following countries provides maximum facilities to Civil Servants for participating in political autho-rities ?
(A) Canada
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Switzerland
(D) U.K.

41. Fulton Committee submitted its report on British Civil Service in the year—
(A) 1960
(B) 1966
(C) 1968
(D) 1970

42. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Consti-tution enjoins that “No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law” ?
(A) Article 113
(B) Article 117
(C) Article 203
(D) Article 265

43. Project formulation does not look at—
(A) That the project is tech-nically sound.
(B) That it provides a good economic return.
(C) That it aims at moral uplift of society.
(D) That it is capable of being completed with available resour-ces.

44. In India, who of the following is responsible for the detailed maintenance of accounts of expenditure in the Government ?
(A) Accountant General
(B) Secretary of the Administra-tive Department
(C) Director of Treasuries
(D) Finance Secretary

45. Which one of the following has not been included in the classification of Authority by Max-Weber ?
(A) Legal rational authority
(B) Charismatic authority
(C) Political authority
(D) Traditional authority

46. In the writing of which of the following thinkers, efficiency is a dependent variable ?
1. Gulick and Urwick
2. Riggs
3. Weber
4. Simon
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

47. Which one of the following thinkers believed that the “authority belongs to the job and stays with the job” ?
(A) Oliver Sheldon
(B) Chester Barnard
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) Mary Parker Follet

48. Which of the following are the advantages of Zero-based bud-geting ?
1. It eliminates low-priority pro-grammes.
2. It improves programme effec-tiveness dramatically.
3. It presents the programmes and accomplishments in financial and physical terms.
4. It lays highest emphasis on programmes in order to obtain more finance.
5. It reduces tax incidence.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(D) All the five

49. Who of the following said that “the real significance of the budget system lies in providing for the orderly administration of financial affairs of Govern- ment” ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) A. Wildavasky
(C) Chris Argyris
(D) Lindblom

50. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India has authorised the Parliament to create a Conting-ency Fund of India.
Reason (R) : The Contingency Fund of India enables the Government to meet out any unforeseen expenditure.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

51. Executive control out adminis-tration is exercised through—
1. Execution of administrative policy.
2. Order issued by supervisors.
3. Necessity to obtain prior approval.
4. System of rewards and punishments.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

52. In India the Union Government is bound to resign after passing of the—
(A) Censure motion
(B) No-confidence motion
(C) Adjournment motion
(D) Calling attention motion

53. The Railway Budget was separa-ted from the main budget of India in—
(A) 1860
(B) 1919
(C) 1921
(D) 1935

54. Which of the following are means of effective citizens’ control over administration ?
1. Creation of good number of public welfare committees.
2. Intellectuals coming forward and taking the lead.
3. Responsible behaviour of political parties.
4. Associaton of people with decision-making process at appropriate levels.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

55. Which one of the following is not the responsibility of District Magistrate ?
(A) Public distribution system.
(B) Implementation of poverty alleviation programmes.
(C) Collection of Income Tax
(D) Maintenance of law and order.

56. In which one of the following parts of the Constitution of India has the provision for Panchayati Raj been made ?
(A) IX
(B) IV
(C) III
(D) IX A

57. The Parliamentary Committee on Public Undertakings was set up on the recommendation of—
(A) Krishna Menon Committee
(B) Appleby Committee
(C) Estimates Committee
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General

58. Nooruddin Committee on the training of Municipal Personnel was constituted in the year—
(A) 1962
(B) 1963
(C) 1964
(D) 1965

59. In practice, the Prime Minister is very powerful at the start of his term and reinforces his strength through periodic reshuffles in the Council of Ministers. The latter exercise raises the impor-tance of—
(A) Parliament
(B) Ministries
(C) Cabinet Secretariat
(D) Prime Minister’s Office

60. The Prime Minister presides over—
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Knowledge Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Population Commission

61. Communication
1. is shared understanding of a shared purpose.
2. is meeting of minds on common issues.
3. always follows the formal structure.
4. has to be understood in order to have force of authority.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

62. Which one of the following is not involved in the preparation of plan for development in a district of Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) Gram Panchayat
(B) Kheshtra Panchayat
(C) D.R.D.A.
(D) District Planning Committee

63. Good governance by a municipal body, among other things, depends upon—
1. Committed elected represen-tatives.
2. Committed municipal bureaucracy.
3. Awakened citizenry.
4. State vigilance on its func-tioning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

64. Crisis of identity as a stage in the evolution of Public Admini-stration belongs to the period—
(A) 1940 – 47
(B) 1948 – 70
(C) 1971 – 90
(D) 1991 onwards

65. The District Collector
1. is a multi-functional autho-rity.
2. works on the principle of anonymity.
3. has no concern with election.
4. is an important link in the administration of the State.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3

66. Which of the following state-ments about the scope of Public Administration are true ?
1. Posdcorb view of scope of Public Administration has its limitations.
2. Different agencies face different problems.
3. Substance of administration is different from tools of administration.
4. posdcorb view is subject-oriented.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

67. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Second Finance Commission in Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) A. P. Singh
(B) Yashpal Singh
(C) T. N. Dhar
(D) B. N. Tiwari

68. Which one of the following is the first Public Corporation created in independent India ?
(A) Life Insurance Corporation
(B) Damodar Valley Corpora-tion
(C) Food Corporation
(D) Central Warehousing Cor-poration

69. Which one of the following does not have a Municipal Corpora-tion ?
(A) Varanasi
(B) Meerut
(C) Gorakhpur
(D) Rampur

70. In a broader sense, Public Administration is related to the functions of—
1. Legislature
2. Executive
3. Government
4. Judiciary
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

71. Classical Theory of Administra-tion has been criticized because
1. it is an unscientific theory of organisation.
2. it neglected the sociological and psychological dimen-sions.
3. its principles do not have universal relevance.
4. it treats an organisation “as an open system”.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) Laws, delegation etc.
(b) Positional theory of Autho-rity
(c) Acceptance theory of Autho-rity
(d) Types of authority classifica-tion

List-II
1. Behaviouralists
2. Max Weber
3. Classical Thinkers
4. Source of Authority
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 2 1 4 3

73. “Co-ordination is the beginning and the end of all organised efforts.” This statement was made by—
(A) Luther Gulick
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) J. D. Mooney
(D) F. M. Marx

74. Who of the following said that ‘Cabinet’ is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the executive and the legislative departments together ?
(A) Lowell
(B) Laski
(C) Muir
(D) Bagehot

75. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Prime Minister is the Primus enter pares in a Cabinet form of Government.
Reason (R) : His position is undermined by the dominant leaders of political parties in a Coalition Government.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

76. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The Governor is appointed by the President of India and remains in office during his pleasure.
Reason (R) : The power to hire and fire the Governor is exclu-sively available to the President.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

77. Taylorism became popular as ‘Stakhanovit movement’ in—
(A) U.S.S.R.
(B) Germany
(C) Britain
(D) Japan

78. An organisation
1. consists of unstructured rela-tionshipsbetween individuals
2. is a system of consciously co-ordinated activities
3. always works for a purpose
4. functions with the help of an informal organisation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

79. Which one of the following statements about ‘Responsibility’ is NOT correct ?
(A) Responsibility is the obliga-tion of a person to achieve mutually determined results
(B) Operating responsibility is delegated to the subordinates
(C) Authority and responsibility exist independently
(D) Ultimate responsibility can-not be delegated

80. Which of the following statements about Parkinson’s Law are true ?
1. There is little or no relation-ship between the work and the size of the staff.
2. Work expands to fill the time available for its com-pletion.
3. Parkinson’s Second Law states that expenditure rises to meet income.
4. The growth of administra-tive hierarchies is dependent upon the increase in work.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

81. Which of the following state-ments about ‘Delegation’ are correct ?
1. It helps in increasing sense of responsibility among emplo-yees.
2. Implementation of critical programmes needs extensive delegation.
3. Lack of effective means of internal communication han-dicaps delegation.
4. It facilitates approval of new programmesbysubordinates.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4

82. Consider the following state-ments—
Assertion (A) : An adminsitra-tive organisation is an open social system.
Reason (R) : Systems approach favours a flexible participative structure.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

83. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) Charismatic authority
(b) Legalrational authority
(c) Traditional authority
(d) Legitimate authority

List-II
1. Obedience to the ruler.
2. Obedience by virtue of per-sonal trust.
3. Obedience because of adher-ence to rules and proce-dures.
4. Obedience of the command as voluntary.
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 4 1 2

84. The constitution of Public Accounts Committee, first sug-gested by the Webly Commission in 1896, now has members from—
(A) Lok Sabha only
(B) Rajya Sabha only
(C) Both the Houses
(D) AsnomineesofthePresident

85. Headquarters’ control over field administration is exercised through the methods of—
1. Reports
2. Administrative Manuals
3. Inspection
4. Investigation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four

86. Which of the following are deter-mined by the budget ?
1. Financial and managerial accountability of the execu-tive to the legislature.
2. Subordinate’s accountability to superior official in the executive.
3. Legislative accountability to the judiciary.
4. Government departments’ accountability to the Finance Commission.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 4

87. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act has provided for—
1. constitutional status to Panchayati Raj bodies.
2. one-third reservation for women.
3. a separate test of subjects.
4. a separate Ministry in the Centre.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four

88. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) The Ecology of Public Administration
(b) The Golden Book of Mana-gement
(c) The Administrative State
(d) Economy and Society

List-II
1. Urwick
2. Riggs
3. Weber
4. Waldo
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 3 4

89. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The role of the Collector in developmental functions has decreased during the past few years.
Reason (R) : The Collectors are preoccupied with many other things.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct expla-nation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

90. Which one of the following is not included in the Panchayati Raj System ?
(A) Zilla Panchayat
(B) Village Panchayat
(C) Nagar Panchayat
(D) Kheshtra Panchayat

91. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) Centralization
(b) Decentralization
(c) Demerit of centralization
(d) Demerit of decentralization

List-II
1. Delay in securing action by the field officials.
2. Unsuitable for dealing with emergencies.
3. Concentration of authority at top level.
4. Transfer of authority to lower levels.
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 3 4 1 2

92. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) N.C.R. and Union Territory of Delhi are two entities
(B) N.C.R. and Union Territory of Delhi have same boundaries
(C) U.T. of Delhi has one single Local Government institution
(D) Development of N.C.R is the sole concern of Central Govern-ment

93. Given below are two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : The election system and working of Panchayati Raj institutions is similar in all the States.
Reason (R) : 73rd Amendment has introduced certain unifor-mity in the Panchayati Raj system.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

94. Who of the following said that co-ordination is the first princi-ple of organisation ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Williams
(C) James D. Mooney
(D) Chester Barnard

95. Select the correct sequence of the following administrative events by using the code given at the end—
1. Pendleton Act, U.S.A.
2. All India Service Act.
3. Setting up of Kothari Com-mission on Recruitment Policy and Selection Method.
4. Constitution of Fulton Com-mitteeon British Civil Service.
code :
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3
(B) 2, 3, 1, 4
(C) 3, 4, 2, 1
(D) 4, 3, 1, 2

96. Which of the following state-ments are correct ?
1. The generalist-specialist con-troversy is dead now.
2. Persons with specialized educational background enter the civil service in increasing number.
3. Specialists compete with generalists in the power-game.
4. A generalist by virtue of his grooming is disliked by political executives in the Secretariat.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

97. ‘Administrative Man’ model represents the real situation by—
(A) Organisation behaviour
(B) Decision-making behaviour
(C) Money-making behaviour
(D) Supportive behaviour

98. According to Gulick, three major factors determine the ‘span of control’ of an executive.
Which one of the following is not the factor ?
(A) Element of purpose
(B) Element of time
(C) Element of space
(D) Element of diversification of functions

99. Development Administration in India is mainly concerned with—
(A) The development of heavy industries
(B) Maintenance of law and order
(C) Economic development and promotion of social justice
(D) Redressal of public grie-vances

100. ‘Span of Control’ stands for—
1. Span of communication
2. Span of management
3. Span of units of work
4. Span of attention
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

101. Which of the following are cor-rect as measures to reduce line-staff conflicts ?
1. Clear demarcation of the responsibilities of the two.
2. Creation of opportunities for exchange of roles.
3. Laying emphasis on unity of purpose.
4. Maintenance of anonymity by staff agencies.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

102. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Talcott Parsons is known for his Structural-Func-tional Approach.
Reason (R) : Functionally dif-fused, functionally specific and intermediate societies cannot be compared.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

103. The Comparative Public Admi-nistration emphasizes that—
1. The Principles of Public Administration are seriously inadequate.
2. Any proper discipline must have complementary pure and applied aspects.
3. Organisation must be viewed as embedded in specific cultures and poli-tical settings.
4. Both the study and practice of administration are per-vasively value-loaded,
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

104. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of steps in Recruitment process ?
(A) Induction, Selection, Proba-tion and Appointment
(B) Selection, Appointment, Probation and Induction
(C) Appointment, Probation, Selection and Induction
(D) Selection, Probation, Induc-tion and Appointmen

105. Consider the following two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : Job-oriented supervisors do not permit the participation of subordinates in decision-making process.
Reason (R) : They exert little pressure on subordinates.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explana-tion of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

106. U.P. State Employees Welfare Corporation is a—
(A) Public Corporation
(B) Government Company
(C) Joint Stock Company
(D) Registered Society

107. Who of the following was the first to make a distinction bet-ween ‘power’ and ‘authority’ ?
(A) M. P. Follett
(B) Max Weber
(C) Kautilya
(D) Frank Goodnow

108. During the course of working of personnel, learning and achiev-ing administrative efficiency is known as—
(A) Informal training
(B) Formal training
(C) Post-entry training
(D) Orientation training

109. Which of the following consi-derations are taken into account while granting promotion ?
1. Merit
2. Length of Service
3. Integrity
4. Age
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

110. Which of the following are Constitutional Commissions in India ?
1. Election Commission
2. Planning Commission
3. Human Rights Commission
4. Finance Commission
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

111. Consider the following two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : According to Chester Barnard, leadership depends upon three things – individual, followers and the conditions.
Reason (R) : According to Chester Barnard, there are three styles of leadership-trait, beha-vioural and situational.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explana-tion of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

112. ‘Greatman’ Theory of Leader-ship led to the rise of—
(A) Behavioural Theory of Leadership
(B) Situational Theory of Leadership
(C) Trait Theory of Leadership
(D) None of the above

113. The powers of Parliament in respect of passage of the Budget are enshrined in the Constitu-tion in—
(A) Art. 114
(B) Art. 113 & 203
(C) Art. 265 to 267
(D) Art. 112 to 117

114. The traditional type of budget-ing is concerned with—
(A) Program Budgeting
(B) Lump-sum Budgeting
(C) Line-item Budgeting
(D) Performance Budgeting

115. The Budget was formally intro-duced in India in—
(A) 1857
(B) 1860
(C) 1868
(D) 1919

116. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Administrative decisions in Government cannot possibly be evaluated through scientific methods.
Reason (R) : Administrative decisions in Government involve facts and value premises.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explana-tion of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

117. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of the pri-nciple of ‘Unity of Command’ ?
(A) More than one superior official should command the subordinates
(B) There should be uniformity in commands by higher officials
(C) Subordinates must receive command from only one higher official.
(D) Subordinate should follow the commands from all the superior officials

118. The classical theorists attached more importance to—
(A) Role of people in organisa-tion
(B) Structural designing of organisation
(C) Inter-personal relations in organisation
(D) Rational bureaucracy

119. Which one of the following is correct about ‘Behavioural Approach’ ?
(A) Use of traditional tools of analysis.
(B) Use of non-ecological studies.
(C) Belief in philosophical defi-nition of the term.
(D) Use of empirical studies.

120. ‘Acceptance theory of Autho-rity’ was propounded by—
(A) Chester Barnard
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Robert Merton
(D) Elton Mayo

Answers with Explanations :
1. (D)
2. (C) Public Administration is a good creative force in the man’s welfare as its ideal. No Govern-ment can exist without admini-stration. One of the main func-tions of administration is to facilitate social change.
3. (B)Henri Fayol has suggested Gangplank as an alternative to ‘Through proper channel’ in the organisation.
4. (B) The book Public Adminis-tration in a Time of Turbulence by Dwight Waldo in (1971) talks about New Public Adminis-tration.
5. (B)Social relevance is the impor-tant feature of New Public Admi-nistration.
6. (D)Administration includes group activity, cooperation among the members of the group and coordination among the activities of participants.
7. (C)Woodrow Wilson defined Public Administration as detai-led and systematic study of law.
8. (A)AccordingtoChester Barnard Administration essentially is related to reconciliation, involv-ing individual as well as social groups.

9. (B)The correct chronological sequence of the major events in Public Administration—
1. Scientific Management Movement.
2. Hawthorne Experiments (1924-1932)
3. Michigan Research (1946).
4. Comparative Administrative Group (1960)
5. Minnowbrook Conference (1968).

10. (D)The factors responsible for the increasing importance of Public Administration in modern times are as follows—
1. Emergence of welfare state.
2. Scientific and technological advancement.
3. Rapid increase in popula-tion.
4. Economic planning.

11. (C)The distinction between Public and Private Administra-tion is narrowing down.
12. (B)Each Department-related Standing Committee of Indian Parliament consist of 45 mem-bers—30 members from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha.

13. (C) Characteristics of the Line Agencies include—
1. They perform functions necessary to accomplish objectives.
2. They possess authority to issue directives.
3. They come in direct contact with people.

14. (C)Comptroller Auditor General examines the account of the Union Government and submits his report to the President. He examines the accounts of the State Government and submits his report to the Governor of the concerned/state. If any House seeks any information from him he makes it available through PAC.
15. (D)All the four statement are correct.
16. (B)Herzberg calls satisfiers as intrinsic factors. His studies identifier ‘dissatisfiers’ which he calls ‘extrinsic factors’.
17. (D) y theory propounded by Douglas McGregor assumes that work is as natural as play and rest for human being. Average human being seeks responsibility and human potentialities are partially utilised by organi-sations. Emphasis on security is not inherent human charac-teristic but a consequence of experience.
18. (B) The idea of Bounded rationa-lity in decision making was developed by Herbert Simon.

19. (C) Match the following—
(A) Achievement motivation—David McClelland
(B) Expectancy theory—Victor Vrom
(C) Equity —J. Stay Adams
(D) ERG —Alderfer

20. (A)
(i) Bounded Rationality Model —Herbert Simon
(ii) Incremental Model —Lindblom
(iii) Mixed Scanning Model —Etizioni
(iv) Optimal Model —Dror

21. (B) The concept of linking pen was propounded by Likert.
22. (C) LordHewartcharacterises the powers and authority of bureau-cracy as New Despotism.
23. (B) In Barnard’s view Authority is not a command but the acceptance of the order by the juniors. Behavouralists believe that Hierarchy is the best way to command and control juniors.
24. (A) The Path-Goal theory of leadership was developed by Evans and Robert House.
25. (D) Co-ordination is the synchro-nization of efforts while co-operation is the collective action. Co-ordination results in harmo-nious and unified actions to a related objective.
26. (B) A sound recruitment policy is a must for proper and effective personnel administration. A neutral personnel system ensures efficiency in administration.
27. (C) Decentralisation of authority, fair and efficient personnel management and effective con-trolof theParliamentand Cabinet are safeguards against evils of bureaucracy.
28. (A) James Buchanan and Gordon Tullock are associated with Public Choice Theory.
29. (D)
30. (C) In Herbert Simon decision making model administrative man maximises, factual elements can be evaluated and decisions can be influenced.
31. (B) Rensis Likert developed four system of leadership.
32. (B)
33. (B) Training can both be formal and informal.
34. (D) ARC recommended creation of All India Specialist Services for Economic, Industrial, Agri-cultural and Rural Adminis-tration.
35. (A) According to Riggs ‘Sala’ represents the administrative sub-systemof a prismatic society.
36. (A)
37. (C) Recruitment to the lower ranks of Civil Services is made by Staff Selection Commission.
38. (B) The theory of Scientific Mana-gement basically deals with the best way.
39. (A) Mid-career training in the IAS and IPS helps in developing conceptual skills, professional skills, behavioural skills.
40. (C) Switzerland provides maxi-mum facilities to civil servants for participating in political authorities.
41. (C) Fulton Committee submitted its report on British Civil Services in the year of 1968.
42. (D) Article 265 of the Indian Constitution enjoins “No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law”.
43. (C) Project formulation looks at that the project is technically sound, that it is capable of being completed with available resour-ces and that it provides good economic return.
44. (A) In India, Accountant General is responsible for the detailed maintenance of accounts of expenditure in the Government.
45. (C) Legal-rational authority, charismatic authority and tradi-tional authority are the three types of authorities propounded by Max Weber.
46. (C)
47. (D) Mary Parker Follet believes that authority belongs to the job and stays with the job.
48. (D) All the five statements are trueaboutZero-basedbudgeting.
49. (A)
50. (B) The Constitution of India has authorised the Parliament to create a Contingency Fund of India. The Contingency Fund of India enables the Government to meet out any unforeseen expenditure.
51. (D) All the four statements about executive control over Adminis-tration are true.
52. (B) In India the Union Govern-ment is bound to resign after passing of the No-confidence motion.
53. (C) The Railway Budget was separated from the main budget of India in 1921.
54. (D) All the four statements are true about effective citizens’ control over administration.
55. (C) D.M. is responsible for Public Distribution System, implemen-tation of poverty Alleviation pro-grammes and maintenance of law and order.
56. (A) Part IX of the Constitution has the provision for Panchayati Raj.
57. (A) The Parliamentary Com-mittee on Public Undertakings was set up on the recommenda-tion of Krishna Menon Com-mittee in 1964.
58. (B) Nooruddin Committee on the training of Municipal Personnel was constituted in 1963.
59. (D) In practice, the Prime Mini-ster is very powerful at the start of his term and reinforces his strength through periodic reshuf-fles in the Council of Ministers the latter exercises raises the importance of Prime Minister’s Office.
60. (C) The Prime Minister presides over Planning Commission.
61. (D) All the four statements are true about communication.
62. (C)
63. (D) All the four statements are true about Good governance by a municipal body. Good gover-nance by a municipal body among other things depends upon committed and elected representatives, committed municipal bureaucracy, awake-ned citizenry and state vigilance on its functioning.
64. (B) Crisis of identity as stage in the evolution of Public Admi-nistration belongs to the period of 1948-1970.
65. (C) The District Collector is a multi-functional authority and is an important link in the admi-nistration of the state.
66. (C) POSDCORB view of scope of Public Administration has its limitations. Different agencies face different problems. Subs-tanance of administration is dif-ferent from tools of administra-tion.
67. (C) T.N. Dhar was the Chairman of the Second Finance Commiss-ion in Uttar Pradesh.
68. (B) Damodar Valley Corporation (Established in 1948) is the first Public Corporation created in independent India.
69. (D) The Municipal Corporations in U.P. exist at Aligarh, Agra, Allahabad, Kanpur, Ghaziabad, Gorakhpur, Barailly, Meerut, Muradabad, Lucknow, Varanasi total 11.
Note—In Jhansi and Rampur Municipal Corporations do not exit.
70. (C) In a broader sense, Public Administration is related to the functions of Legislature, Execu-tive and Judiciary.
71. (B) Classical Theory of Adminis-trationhasbeencriticisedbecause it neglected the sociological and psychological dimensions and its principles do not have universal relevance.

72. (C)
(A) Laws, delegation etc.—Source of Authority
(B) Positional Theory of Autho-rity —Classical Thinkers
(C) Acceptance theory of Autho-rity —Behaviouralists
(D) Types of authority classifica-tion —Max Weber

73. (C) According to J.D. Mooney—“Coordination is the beginning and the end of all organized efforts.”
74. (D) According to Bagehot “Cabinet is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the execu-tive and Legislative departments together.”
75. (B)
76. (C) The Governor is appointed by the President of India and remains in office during his pleasure.
77. (A) Taylorism became popular as Stakhanovit movement in U.S.S.R.
78. (C) An organisation is a system of consciously co-ordinated acti-vities, always works for a pur-pose : and functions with the help of an informal organisation.
79. (C) Authority and responsibility are inter-related and they co-exist.
80. (A) According to Parkinson’s Law—There is little or no relationship between the work and the size of the staff. Work expands to fill the time available for its completion.
81. (B) Delegation helps in increas-ing sense of responsibility among employees Lack of effective means of internal communica-tion handicaps delegation.
82. (B) An administrative organisa-tionisopensocial system. System approves favours a flexible par-ticipative structure.
83. (B)
84. (C) The Constitution of Public Accounts Committee first sug-gested by the Webly Commission in 1896 now has 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.
85. (D) Headquarters control over the field administration is exercised through the methods of Reports, AdministrativeManuals, Inspection and Investi-gation.
86. (A) Budget ensures the financial and managerial accountability of the executive to the legislature. It also ensures subordinates accountability to superior official in the executive.
87. (D) 73rd Constitutional Amend-ment Act has provided for constitutional status for the Panchayati Raj, one third reser-vation for women, a separate list of subjects, a separate Ministry in the Centre.
88. (B)
89. (D) The Collectors are preoccu-pied with many other things.
90. (C) Nagar Panchayat is included in Urban local government system.
91. (D)
92. (B) NCR and Union Territories have the same boundaries.
93. (D)
94. (C) According to J.D. Mooney Co-ordination is the first pri-nciple of organisation.

95. (A)
(i) Pendleton Act U.S.A.—1883
(ii) All India Service Act—1951
(iii) Fulton Committee—1968
(iv) Kothari Commission—1974-76

96. (B) Persons with specialized educational background enter the civil service in increasing number specialists compete with Generalists in the power-game.
97. (B) Administrative Man’s model represents the real situation by decision making behaviour.

98. (A) According to Gulick three major following factors deter-mine the span of control of an executive.
(i) Element of diversification of functions.
(ii) Element of time.
(iii) Element of space.

99. (C) Development Administration in India is mainly concerned with economic development and promotion of social justice.
100. (D) Span of Control stands for span of communication, span of management, span of units of work and span of attention.

101. (C) The following measures can be taken to reduce staff line conflicts.
(1) Clear demarcation of the responsibilities of the two.
(2) Creation of opportunities for exchanging roles.
(3) Laying emphasis on unity of purpose.

102. (C) Talcott Parsons is known for his Structural-Functional Approach.
103. (D) All the four statements about Comparative Public Admi-nistrative are true.
104. (C) Sequence of steps in Recruitment process—Selection, Appointment Probation and Induction.
105. (C)
106. (B) U.P.State employees welfare corporation is a Government Company.
107. (B) 108. (A)
109. (A) Merit and length of service are the considerations which are taken into account while grant-ing promotion.
110. (C) Election Commission (Article 324) and Finance Commission (Article 280) are the Consti-tutional Commission.
111. (C) According to Barnard leadership depends upon three things—individual, followers and conditions.
112. (C) Greatman theory of leader-ship led to the rise of Trait theory of Leadership.
113. (D) The powers of Parliament in respect of passage of the Budget are enshrined in the Constitution in Art. 112 to 117.
114. (C) The traditional type of budgeting is concerned with line item budgeting.
115. (B)The budget was formally introduced in India in 1860.
116. (A) Administrative decisions in Government can not be evalua-ted through scientific methods because administrative decisions in government involve facts and value premises.
117. (C) Unity of Command means that subordinates must receive command from only one higher official.
118. (B) The classical theorists atta-ched more importance to struc-tural designing of organisation.
119. (D) Behavioural approach stands for use of empirical studies.
120. (A)

Forthcoming Competitive Exams : 2011-12

2011
November
● Uttar Pradesh Teacher Eligibility Test (UP TET) 2011 (November 13)
● Aryavart Gramin Bank Officer Scale-I Recruitment Exam. (November 13)
● U.P. Combined Lower Subordinate Services (Main) Exam., 2008 (November 20 Onwards)
● Recruitment Exam. in High Court of Madhya Pradesh (November 20)
● NCERT National Talent Search Exam., 2012 (Class VIII) (November 20)
● Karnataka Vikas Gramin Bank Office Assistant (Multipurpose) Group ‘B’ Exam. (November 20)
● Aryavart Gramin Bank Office Assistant Recruitment Exam. (November 20)
● IBPS Bank Clerical Cadre Common Written Exam. (November 27)
● M.P. Samvida Shala Teacher Eligibility Test, 2011 for Category-1 (November 27)

December
● RPSC Accountant and Jr. Accountant Combined Competitive Exam., 2011 (November-December)
● Bihar Elementary Teacher Eligibility Test, 2011 (December 3)
● S.S.C. Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Exam., 2011 for Recruitment of Data Entry Operator and Lower Division Clerks (December 4)
● Bihar Secondary and Higher Secondary Teacher Eligibility Test, 2011 (December 4)
● U.P. PCS (Main) Exam., 2011 (December 8 Onwards)
● Bihar Staff Selection Commission Graduate Level First Elementary Combined Competitive Exam., 2010 (December 18)
● Rashtriya Military Common Entrance Test, 2012 for Class VI (December 18)
● Rajasthan State Road Transport Corporation Assistant Divisional Manager/Assistant Depot Manager/ Traffic Inspector/Assistant Traffic Inspector Exam. (December 18)
● CSIR-UGC National Eligibility Test (NET), December, 2011 (December 18)
● Reserve Bank of India Officers Grade ‘B’ Exam. (December 18)
● S.S.C. Junior Translators/Junior Hindi Translators and Hindi Teacher Exam., 2011 (December 18)
● Delhi Judicial Service (Pre.) Exam. (December 18)
● M.P. Samvida Shala Teacher Eligibility Test, 2011 for Category-3 (December 18)
● Malwa Gramin Bank Office Assistant Recruitment Exam. (December 18)
● CRPF CT (Technical/Tradesman) Recruitment Exam. (December 20)
● UGC-NET Exam. December 2011 (December 24)

2012
January
● Malwa Gramin Bank Officers Recruitment Exam. (January 8)
● Andhra Pragathi Gramin Bank Officers Recruitment Exam. (January 8)
● U.P. Combined Lower Subordinate Services (Pre.) Exam., 2009 (January 8)
● Andhra Pradesh Teacher Eligibility Test (AP TET) Jan 2012 (November 8)
● Andhra Pragathi Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (January 15)
● Bihar Kshetriya Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (January 15) (Online Closing Date : 30 November, 2011)
● M.P. Samvida Shala Techer Eligibility Test (Category-2) (January 22)
● U.P.S.C. Special Class Railway Apprentices Exam., 2012 (January 29) (Online Closing Date : 21 November, 2011)
● Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) Jan 2012 (January 29) (Closing Date : 30 November, 2011)

February
● Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Exam. (Class VI) (February 12)
● Combined Defence Services Exam. (I), 2012 (February 12) (Closing Date : 28 November, 2011)

आगामी प्रतियोगिता परीक्षाएं 2011-12

● नवम्बर – बिहार प्रारम्भिक शिक्षक पात्रता परीक्षा–2011
● नवम्बर – बिहार सेकण्डरी एवं हायर सेकण्डरी शिक्षक पात्रता परीक्षा–2011
● 27 नवम्बर – राजस्थान राज्य पथ परिवहन सहायक संभाग प्रबन्धक / सहायक आगार प्रबन्धक / यातायात निरीक्षक / सहायक यातायात निरीक्षक भर्ती परीक्षा
● 27 नवम्बर – आईबीपीएस बैंक लिपिक संवर्ग सम्मिलित लिखित परीक्षा
● 27 नवम्बर – मध्य प्रदेश संविदा शाला शिक्षक पात्रता परीक्षा-2011 (कैटगरी-I)
● नवम्बर – भारतीय वायु सेना वायु सैनिक चयन परीक्षा [ग्रुप X (तकनीकी)]
● नवम्बर-दिसम्बर – राजस्थान लेखाकार एवं कनिष्ठ लेखाकार सीधी भर्ती संयुक्त प्रतियोगी परीक्षा
● 1 दिसम्बर – राजस्थान सहायक लोक अभियोजक परीक्षा–2011
● 3 दिसम्बर – बिहार प्रारम्भिक शिक्षक पात्रता परीक्षा–2011
● 4 दिसम्बर – एस. एस. सी. डाटा एन्ट्री ऑपरेटर एवं लोअर डिवीजन क्लर्कस् हायर सेकण्डरी लेवल (10+2) परीक्षा-2011
● 4 दिसम्बर – बिहार सेकण्डरी एवं हायर सेकण्डरी शिक्षक पात्रता परीक्षा–2011
● 18 दिसम्बर – मध्य प्रदेश संविदाशला शिक्षक (श्रेणी-3) पात्रता परीक्षा–2011
● 8 दिसम्बर से – उत्तर प्रदेश सम्मिलित राज्य/प्रवर अधीनस्थ सेवा (मुख्य) परीक्षा–2011
● 18 दिसम्बर – एस.एस.सी. जूनियर ट्रांसलेटर्स / जूनियर हिन्दी ट्रांसलेटर्स तथा हिन्दी प्राध्यापक परीक्षा, 2011
● 18 दिसम्बर – दिल्ली न्यायिक सेवा प्रारम्भिक परीक्षा
● 18 दिसम्बर – मध्य प्रदेश संविदाशाला शिक्षक (श्रेणी-3) पात्रता परीक्षा
● 18 दिसम्बर – सी. एस. आई. आर.–यूजीसी राष्ट्रीय पात्रता परीक्षा (NET) दिसम्बर-2011
● 18 दिसम्बर – रिजर्व बैंक ऑफ इण्डिया ऑफिसर्स ग्रेड 'B' परीक्षा
● 18 दिसम्बर – राष्ट्रीय मिलिट्री स्कूल कॉमन एन्ट्रेन्स टेस्ट–2012 (कक्षा VI)
● 18 दिसम्बर – बिहार कर्मचारी चयन आयोग स्नातकस्तरीय प्रथम प्रारम्भिक संयुक्त प्रतियोगिता परीक्षा–2010
● 18 दिसम्बर – मालवा ग्रामीण बैंक कार्यालय सहायक भर्ती परीक्षा
● 18 दिसम्बर – राजस्थान राज्य पथ परिवहन सहायक संभाग प्रबन्धक/सहायक आगार प्रबन्धक/यातायात निरीक्षक/सहायक यातायात निरीक्षक भर्ती परीक्षा
● 20 दिसम्बर – सीआरपीएफ सीटी (टेक्निकल/ट्रेड्समैन) भर्ती परीक्षा
● 21 दिसम्बर – राजस्थान न्यायिक सेवा प्रतियोगी परीक्षा–2011
● 22 दिसम्बर – राजस्थान कनिष्ठ लिपिक संयुक्त प्रतियोगी परीक्षा–2011
● 24 दिसम्बर – यू.जी.सी.-नेट परीक्षा दिसम्बर 2011

2012
● जनवरी – राजस्थान स्टेनोग्राफर प्रतियोगी परीक्षा–2011
● जनवरी – राजस्थान लेखाकार एवं कनिष्ठ लेखाकार सीधी भर्ती संयुक्त प्रतियोगी परीक्षा–2011
● 8 जनवरी – आंध्र प्रदेश अध्यापक पात्रता परीक्षा जनवरी, 2012
● 8 जनवरी – मालवा ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर्स भर्ती परीक्षा
● 8 जनवरी – आंध्रा प्रगति ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफीसर्स भर्ती परीक्षा
● 8 जनवरी – उत्तर प्रदेश सम्मिलित राज्य/प्रवर अधीनस्थ सेवा (प्रारम्भिक) परीक्षा–2009
● 15 जनवरी – आंध्रा प्रगति ग्रामीण बैंक कार्यालय सहायक भर्ती परीक्षा
● 15 जनवरी – बिहार क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंक ऑफिस असिस्टेंट परीक्षा (ऑनलाइन अन्तिम तिथि– 30 नवम्बर, 2011)
● 22 जनवरी – मध्य प्रदेश संविदाशाला शिक्षक पात्रता परीक्षा (श्रेणी-2)
● 22 जनवरी – एस.एस.सी. भारतीय खाद्य निगम सहायक ग्रेड II एवं टाइपिस्ट परीक्षा–2012
● 29 जनवरी – संघ लोक सेवा आयोग स्पेशल क्लास रेलवे अप्रेन्टिसेज परीक्षा–2012
● 29 जनवरी – केन्द्रीय अध्यापक पात्रता परीक्षा (CTET) जनवरी, 2012 (अन्तिम तिथि– 30 नवम्बर, 2011)
● 4-5 फरवरी – एस.एस.सी. भारतीय खाद्य निगम सहायक ग्रेड III परीक्षा–2012
● 12 फरवरी – सम्मिलित रक्षा सेवा परीक्षा (I)–2012 (अन्तिम तिथि– 28 नवम्बर, 2011)
● 12 फरवरी – जवाहर नवोदय विद्यालय प्रवेश परीक्षा (कक्षा-VI)
● 8 अप्रैल – एस.एस.सी. जूनियर इंजीनियर (सिविल एवं इलेक्ट्रीकल) परीक्षा–2012 (अन्तिम तिथि– 10 फरवरी, 2012)
● 22 अप्रैल – केन्द्रीय पुलिस संगठन काँस्टेबिल (जनरल ड्यूटी) एवं राइफलमैन (जनरल ड्यूटी) भर्ती (अन्तिम तिथि– 4 जनवरी, 2012)
● 22 मई – एस.एस.सी. केन्द्रीय पुलिस संगठन सब-इंस्पेक्टर्स एवं इन्टेलीजेन्स ऑफीसर एनसीबी परीक्षा–2012 (अन्तिम तिथि– 16 मार्च, 2012)