Nabard Bank Officers Exam. 2008 : Solved Paper

Nabard Bank Officers Exam., 2008
General Awareness : Solved Paper
(Held on 30-3-2008)
1. Which of the following was the reason owing to which public unrest broke out in Pakistan and an Emergency was declared a few months back ?
  1. Sudden death of former Prime Minister Benazir Bhutto.
  2. Announcement of General Elections.
  3. Appointment of a new Chief of Army in place of Gen. Pervez Musharraf who was very popular leader there.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

2. India, Brazil and South Africa made a forum in 2003 which is playing a very significant role in dealing with the issues of common interest of all the three in general and their foreign policies in particular. What is the name of the forum ? (The Second Summit of the forum was organized in October 2007 in Pretoria)
(A) SAGU
(B) BRIC
(C) G-20
(D) IBSA
(E) None of these

3. Read the following three statements carefully and answer the question asked immediately after that—
  1. Hu Jintao has been reelected the General Secretary of the ruling CPC for the second term till 2012.
  2. Vice President of the country Zeng Quinghing was removed from the powerful Central Committee of the party.
  3. Country is now likely to proceed on a new agenda of progress and development as Jintao is a man of modern and scientific outlook.

All these three statements are about the political development in the country known as—
(A) South Korea
(B) North Korea
(C) Singapore
(D) China
(E) Thailand

4. The mid term review of the Monetary and Credit Policy of the RBI (for 2007-08) took place in January 2008. Which of the following is true about the same ?

  1. CRR hiked by 0.5 per cent to make it 7.5% w.e.f. 10th February, 2008.
  2. GDP growth outlook at 8.5% for 2007-08.
  3. Call and put options are now allowed in imports and exports.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) None of these

5. An International Organization with Robert B. Zoellick as its President sanctioned a loan of US$ 944 million to India so that it can strengthen its rural finance system, vocational training and improve its water management projects. Which of the following is the name of that organization ?
(A) International Monetary Fund
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) UNESCO
(D) World Bank
(E) None of these

6. As per the news which appeared in some newspapers/magazines the police with the help of some NGOs rescued some children who had been forced in child labour illegally. Such children are protected under which of the following acts in India ?
1. Juvenile Justice Act.
2. Child Labour Act.
3. Immoral Trafficking Act.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

7. As per the news published in the media, India, China and some other countries are trying to grapple with money flooding the economy from a record trade surplus, and swelling of foreign exchange reserves of the country. Why do the Central Banks of such countries have to make special efforts to check the flooding of money and foreign exchange in economy whereas for an ordinary man more money means richness and prosperity ?

  1. It generates artificial inflation in economy.
  2. It makes the Govt. of that country to revaluate its currency.
  3. It creates a situation where rate of interest on loans and advances starts coming down sharply.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) None of these

8. The Govt. of India recently established a fund known as National Investment Fund (NIF). Which of the following statement(s) is/are true in this regard ?

  1. This fund is generated through the money received from the sale of equity in State run companies.
  2. The fund will help in revival of sick units of the public sector companies of the Govt. of India.
  3. The money deposited in the fund will be used for social welfare schemes.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

9. The Govt. of India is making special efforts to help the farmer community in the country as they are in distress and demand special attention from all of us.
Which of the following is correct in this regard ?

  1. Govt. of India has announced a substantial hike in minimum support price of wheat for Rabi season.
  2. A relief package is announced for the Sugar Industry.
  3. All farmers are being given a cash assistance of Rs. 5 lakhs to make them comfortable financially.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these

10. Which of the following taxes is collected by the Govt. on sale of goods and services in the country ?
(A) NAT
(B) GET
(C) SAT
(D) VAT
(E) None of these

11. The N. D. Kumaraswamy Govt. came into minority in Karnataka because one segment of the coalition
government withdrew its support from it in October 2007.
Which of the following was that segment ?
(A) SP
(B) Congress
(C) BSP
(D) Telugu Desam
(E) None of these

12. The newly elected President of which of the following countries took over the charge from her husband who was the President of the country immediately prior to the general presidential elections there ?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Romania
(D) Peru
(E) Argentina

13. The latest European Union Summit took place in which of the following cities in October 2007 ?
(A) Brussels
(B) Paris
(C) Luxembourg
(D) Lisbon
(E) None of these

14. The UN Climate change Conference 2007 was organized in which of the following places ?
(A) Manila
(B) London
(C) Brussels
(D) Lisbon
(E) Bali

15. India ranks 128 in the recently published Human Development Index (HDI). The index measures
which of the following to decide the rank of a country ?
1. Life expectancy
2. Literacy and Education
3. Forex reserves as a percentage of total GDP
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

16. Kevin Rudd recently took over as the Prime Minister of Australia from John Howard. Which of the following policies of John Howard went wrong and against him who otherwise was holding the post since last four terms of four years each ?
1. Refusal to ratify Kyoto protocol
2. Policy of hiring and firing workers any time
3. Support to non-democratic govt. in some countries
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

17. Many a time we read a term ‘PPP’ in financial newspapers. What is the full form of the same as used in financial world ?
(A) Public Per Capita Power
(B) Per Capita Potential Purchases
(C) Purchasing Power Parity
(D) Present Purchasing Power
(E) None of these

18. ‘Cryogenic Engines’ are being developed indigenously by an Indian organization. These engines are normally used for which of the following purposes ?
(A) Used for space programme
(B) Used for generating nuclear power
(C) Used by Railways as they are very fast and fuel efficient
(D) Used in fighter planes
(E) None of these

19. The UN has revealed that the emergency phase is now over in Chernobyl where a disastrous accident had taken place in 1986. The affected people there will now be treated as normal and not as victims. What had happened in Chernobyl in 1986 ?
(A) A train accident in which about 1000 people had died
(B) A bomb blast in which around 500 people died and 5000 were injured
(C) A nuclear plant exploded and the entire city became a radioactive zone
(D) A powerful earthquake rocked the entire city leaving thousands dead and several thousands injured
(E) None of these

20. Who amongst the following is the Chairman of the 13th Finance Commission constituted recently ?
(A) Vijay Kelkar
(B) B. K. Chaturvedi
(C) K. V. Kamath
(D) A. K. Purwar
(E) None of these

21. Many a time we read in newspapers about the “Doha Round” of talks. It was related with the talks of which of the following organizations ?
(A) European Union
(B) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(C) International Atomic Energy Agencies (IAEA)
(D) G-8 talks
(E) None of these

22. Dinar is the currency of which of the following countries ?
(A) Sudan
(B) Myanmar
(C) Afghanistan
(D) Pakistan
(E) None of these

23. The former President of Mozambique Joaquim Chissano was honoured by the first ever international prize to an African leader, the prestigious “Mo Ibrahim Leadership Prize”. The Prize was given to him in 2007 October. What was the contribution of Chissano owing to which he was selected for the same ?
(Pick up the correct statement)

  1. He was instrumental in bringing peace, reconciliation, stable democracy and economic progress to Mozambique.
  2. He played a crucial role in diffusing tension between Iran and IAEA over the issue of Iran’s nuclear facilities.
  3. He played a crucial role in diffusing conflict between India and some western countries over the issue of subsidy to agriculture in WTO conference held in 2007.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

24. Who amongst the following Indian leaders became the second World Leader to receive the British Royal Society’s prestigious King Charles II Medal ?
(Given in October 2007)
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(B) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi
(C) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(E) None of these

25. The “Outstanding Business Leader Award–2007” was given to whom amongst the following in October 2007 ?
(A) Lakshmi Mittal
(B) Sunil Bharti Mittal
(C) Rahul Bajaj
(D) Kumar Mangalam Birla
(E) None of these

26. The Doing Business Report, an international publication, is published every year by which of the following organization(s) ?
1. World Bank
2. WTO
3. Reserve Bank of India
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

27. The fourth Military World Games–2007 were organized in which of the following places in India ?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Jaipur
(D) Bangalore
(E) Cochin

28. The 47th Open National Athletic Championship 2007 was organized in which of the following places ?
(A) Jamshedpur
(B) New Delhi
(C) Lucknow
(D) Bangalore
(E) None of these

29. Who amongst the following is not a famous Lawn tennis player ?
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Leander Paes
(C) Svetlana Kuznetsova
(D) Justin Henin
(E) Kimi Raikkonen

30. Lot of discussion is going on these days on the issue of ‘Participatory Note’ (P Notes) used in financial sector/money market. What is Participatory Note ?
[Pick up the correct statement(s)]

  1. It is nothing but another name of the banking operation by which banks exchange Indian Rupees into US Dollars without depositing a single rupee in the account of the party who are NRIs. The entire operation is carried out by the banks solely on the basis of the credit and goodwill of the NRI party.
  2. It is an offshore derivative instrument used by overseas buyers/investors who buy shares of Indian companies listed in Indian Stock Exchange anonymously.
  3. It is nothing but a type of undertaking given to the banks that they should continue investing money in stock markets on behalf of the NRIs and in case the market crashes NRI’s will make the losses good without delay.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

31. As we all see every now and then many countries are in the race of launching space shuttles or rockets or satellites. What exactly are the benefits of space programmes which otherwise are very costly affairs for the countries ?

  1. It is nothing but a fun to have a visit to space. It has no real benefit as such.
  2. Humanity can be served/benefited by getting data on weather, disaster alerts and/or resource centres connected through satellites.
  3. Since earth is no longer a place to live we have to find out a place where in the next few years we can shift and survive. Such programmes help us in all this.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these

32. As we all see oil prices have a special place in economic folklore. Almost all countries keep an eagle eye on the oil prices in the international market. Why is oil so important for the countries and their economies to survive ?
[Pick up the correct statement(s)]

  1. Two nastiest global recessions of the recent decades were preceded by huge and sudden rises in prices of oil, first in 1973 and then in 1979. Leaders are scared of their repetition.
  2. What makes oil so special is that it is a uniquely dense and portable form of energy. It is not easy to switch to alternatives very quickly, hence any disruptions to supply are damaging for economies.
  3. Oil exporting countries are most powerful and violent nations. Countries do not want to invite trouble with them.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

33. Which of the following is the name of Tata’s small car launched recently ?
(A) Micro
(B) Sapna
(C) Nano
(D) Lakhtakia
(E) None of these

34. The House of Representatives of USA recently approved a US$ 50 billion War Funding Bill. If passed it would require President Bush to start withdrawing troops from—
(A) Iraq
(B) Pakistan
(C) Sudan
(D) China
(E) South Africa

35. The public protest on which of the following issues recently brought the whole of the France to a near standstill for the second time in a month ?
1. Irregularities in Presidential elections held in 2007.
2. President Sarkozy’s plan to reform public sector pensions.
3. France’s support to USA on Iraq’s rebuilding
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 3
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) None of these

36. Who amongst the following was adjudged as Miss Earth-Air 2007 ?
(A) Pooja Chitgopekar
(B) Pooja Gupta
(C) Amruta Patki
(D) Sarah Jane Dias
(E) None of these

37. As per the news which appeared in newspapers/magazines thousands of civilians have to flee the fighting in North Kivu province as there is a war going on between the army of the country and rebels of General Laurent Nkunda. This is the story of which of the following countries ?
(A) Congo
(B) Sudan
(C) Mozambique
(D) Argentina
(E) None of these

38. About 20,000 students demonstrated against plans to President Hugo Chavez to change the constitution
of the country. Chavez is the President of—
(A) Sudan
(B) Congo
(C) Venezuela
(D) Poland
(E) None of these

39. Govt. of India recently announced its action plan on Sachchar Committee Report. What actions are being taken on the report ?

  1. Govt. to bear all expenses of poor students who get into top institutions on merit basis.
  2. Revision of Madarsa Modernization programme.
  3. Special Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme for minority population.

(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Only 3 is correct
(E) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

40. As we read in the newspapers the 123 Agreement with USA will have strategic implications on India. Which of the following is/are these implications ?

  1. India will get recognition as a state with advanced nuclear technology.
  2. The deal will not be offered to Pakistan.
  3. India will be free to develop nuclear weapon for its military purposes.

(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Only 3 is correct
(E) None is correct

41. The Govt. of India recently gave its clearance to the new Agriculture scheme which will provide additional central assistance to the agri. sector. What is/are the main points of this scheme ?

  1. Public Investment in agriculture sector will be banned.
  2. Govt. will help state govts. to achieve the targeted growth rates in agri. sector.
  3. State Govt. will get Rs. 40,000 crores to provide subsidy to agri. sector.

(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Only 3 is correct
(D) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(E) None is correct

42. Who amongst the following are the members of BRIC the summit of which was organized recently ?
1. India
2. Indonesia
3. Brazil
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) Both 1 and 3

43. Abuja Declaration was in news a few months back. This is the pact signed between which of the following two nations ?
(A) India-Sudan
(B) Sudan-China
(C) India-China
(D) Nigeria-Nepal
(E) India-Nigeria

44. USA recently decided to slap few sanctions against Iran which include ouster of Iranian military and banking institutions from US financial system. Why did US resort to such harsh steps against Iran ?

  1. Iran’s alleged support to Pakistan’s military rule.
  2. Iran’s support to terrorism and nuclear programme.
  3. Iran is against any financial help to Iraq as both are old enemies.

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

45. As reported in the newspapers Aung San Suu Kyi has agreed to cooperate with the military ruler of her country. She is a citizen of—
(A) Nepal
(B) Myanmar
(C) Brazil
(D) Indonesia
(E) Hong Kong

46. India won Future Cup Twenty-20 cricket match held in October 2007 in Mumbai. The match was played against—
(A) Pakistan
(B) England
(C) South Africa
(D) New Zealand
(E) Australia

47. Who amongst the following is not one of the Nobel Prize Winners of 2007 ?
(A) Ms. Doris Lessing
(B) Albert Fert
(C) Roger B. Myerson
(D) Al Gore
(E) Yulia Sindzeyeva

48. Who amongst the following won the Man Booker Prize 2007 ?
(A) K. Narayana Kurup
(B) Eric S. Maskin
(C) Mario R. Capecchi
(D) Anne Enright
(E) None of these

49. Who amongst the following was made the Chairman/Chairperson of the National Land Reforms Commission ?
(A) Somnath Chatterjee
(B) Manmohan Singh
(C) Smt. Sonia Gandhi
(D) Murli Deora
(E) None of these

50. The prestigious Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2006 was recently conferred upon—
(A) Prof. Wangari Maathai
(B) Mr. Kevin Rudd
(C) Mr. Ratan Tata
(D) Mr. Mahmoud Abbas
(E) None of these

Answers :
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (D)
6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (E) 12. (E) 13. (D) 14. (E) 15. (C)
16. (E) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (E) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (B)
26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (A) 29. (E) 30. (B)
31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (A) 35. (C)
36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (D)
41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (E) 44. (B) 45. (B)
46. (E) 47. (E) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (A)

RRB Malda-TC Exam 2008 : Solved Paper

RRB Malda-TC Exam 2008 : Solved Paper
(Held on 03-02-2008)


1. The speed of light with the rise in the temperature of the medium—
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains unaltered
(D) Drops sharply
Ans : (C)

2. Which from the following rivers does not originate in Indian territory?
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Brahmaputra
(C) Ravi
(D) Chenab
Ans : (B)

3. The gas predominantly responsible for global warning is—
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Nitrous oxide
(D) Nitrogen peroxide
Ans : (A)

4. 26th January is India’s—
(A) Independence Day
(B) Republic Day
(C) Revolution Day
(D) Parliament Day
Ans : (B)

5. Which of the following uses non-conventional Source of Energy?
(A) Kerosene lamp
(B) Wax candle
(C) Solar lantern
(D) Torch
Ans : (C)

6. Electric current is measured by—
(A) Voltmeter
(B) Anemometer
(C) Commutator
(D) Ammeter
Ans : (D)

7. The dynamo is a device for converting—
(A) Heat energy into electrical energy
(B) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
(C) Magnetic energy into electrical energy
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Galvanised Iron sheets have a coating of—
(A) Tin
(B) Lead
(C) Zinc
(D) Chromium
Ans : (C)

9. The hardest substance available on earth is—
(A) Platinum
(B) Diamond
(C) Quartz
(D) gold
Ans : (A)

10. Washing soda is the common name for—
(A) Calcium carbonate
(B) Calcium bicarbonate
(C) Sodium carbonate
(D) Sodium bicarbonate
Ans : (C)

11. 2008 Olympic games will be held in—
(A) China
(B) Greece
(C) Italy
(D) France
Ans : (A)

12. Who among the following has been appointed as the new Captain of Indian Test Cricket Team?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Rahul Dravid
(C) Anil Kumble
(D) Mahender Singh Dhoni
Ans : (C)

13. Who among the following has been selected as new coach for the Indian Cricket Team?
(A) Vivian Richards
(B) Gary Kirsten
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) Allan Border
Ans : (B)

14. The mascot for the 34th National Games, to be held in Jharkhand in 2008, is—
(A) Sheru
(B) Roopa
(C) Chauva
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

15. With which game is the Agha Khan Cup associated?
(A) Football
(B) Badminton
(C) Basketball
(D) Hockey
Ans : (D)

16. The term, L.B.W. is associated with which of the following games?
(A) Cricket
(B) Hockey
(C) Football
(D) Polo
Ans : (A)

17. Wankhede stadium is situated in?
(A) Chandigarh
(B) Bangalore
(C) Mumbai
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)

18. The Olympic games are normally held at an interval of—
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 5 years
Ans : (C)

19. Jaspal Rana is the name associated with which of the following games?
(A) Boxing
(B) Shooting
(C) Archery
(D) Weight lifting
Ans : (B)

20. Netaji Subhash National Institute of Sports is located at—
(A) Kolkata
(B) New Delhi
(C) Jhansi
(D) Patiala
Ans : (D)

21. A person wants to contest election for the membership of Gram Panchayat, what should be his age?
(A) 18 years or above
(B) 19 years or above
(C) 21 years of above
(D) Minimum 25 years
Ans : (C)

22. Who summons the joint sitting of the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha?
(A) President
(B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(D) Prime Minister
Ans : (A)

23. Which of the following is not a source of revenue to the village panchayat?
(A) Property Tax
(B) House Tax
(C) Land Tax
(D) Vehicle Tax
Ans : (C)

24. All electioneering campaigns during the time of elections are stopped.
(A) 48 hours before the appointed time of election results
(B) 48 hours before the actual poll
(C) 24 hours before the actual poll
(D) 36 hours before the actual poll
Ans : (D)

25. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) Chief Justice of India
Ans : (A)

26. The General Budget is presented in the parliament normally in the month of—
(A) January
(B) February
(C) March
(D) Last month of the year
Ans : (B)

27. Who is the signatory on the Indian currency notes in denomination of two rupees and above?
(A) Secretary, Reserve Bank of India
(B) Finance Secretary, Minister of Finance
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Minister, Ministry of Finance
Ans : (C)

28. The monetary unit of Bangladesh is—
(A) Rupee
(B) Takka
(C) Rupiah
(D) Dollar
Ans : (B)

29. Sellers market denotes a situations where—
(A) Commodities are available at competitive rates
(B) Demand exceeds supply
(C) Supply exceeds demand
(D) Supply and demand are equal
Ans : (B)

30. Development means economic growth plus—
(A) Inflation
(B) Deflation
(C) Price stability
(D) Social change
Ans : (D)

31. The Abbreviation NAEP stands for—
(A) National Atomic Energy Planning
(B) National Adult education Programme
(C) National Authority on Engineering Projects
(D) Nuclear and Atomic Energy Project
Ans : (B)

32. The Abbreviations PSLV stands for—
(A) Polar Survey Landing Vehicle
(B) Polarised Source Laser Viewing
(C) Precise Source Locating Vision
(D) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
Ans : (D)

33. The term ‘epicentre’ is associated with—
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Tornadoes
(C) Cyclones
(D) Earth’s interior
Ans : (A)

34. Which of the following order is given to the plantes of solar system on the basis of their sizes?
(A) Jupiter, Saturn, Earth, Mercury
(B) Saturn, Jupiter, Mercury, Earth
(C) Mercury, Earth, Jupiter, Saturn
(D) Earth, Mercury, Saturn, Jupiter
Ans : (A)

35. The solar eclipse occurs when—
(A) the sun comes in between the moon and the earth
(B) the earth comes in the between the sun and the moon
(C) the moon comes in between the sun and the earth
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

36. The removal of top soil by water or wind is called—
(A) Soil wash
(B) Soil erosion
(C) Soil creep
(D) Silting of soil
Ans : (B)

37. Which of the following is suitable for growing cotton?
(A) Sandy soil
(B) Clayey soil
(C) Black soil
(D) Alluvial soil
Ans : (C)

38. Bandipur Sanctuary is located in the State of—
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (C)

39. Largest State in terms of area, in India is—
(A) Assam
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans : (C)

40. Koraput is related to which of the following Industry—
(A) Aeroplane
(B) Ship building
(C) Iron and steel
(D) Electric locomotives
Ans : (A)

41. Which of the following group of States is the largest producer of tea?
(A) West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh
(B) Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan
(C) Assam, Bihar, Jharkhand
(D) West Bengal, Assam, Karnataka
Ans : (D)

42. Which of these has the largest river basin?
(A) Brahmaputra
(B) Ganga
(C) Godavari
(D) Sutlej
Ans : (B)

43. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for—
(A) Well-planned cities
(B) Efficient civil organization
(C) Development of Art and Architecture
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

44. The Red Fort of Delhi was built by—
(A) Akbar
(B) Shahjehan
(C) Jahangir
(D) Sher Shah
Ans : (B)

45. The ancient name of the city of Patna is—
(A) Pataliputra
(B) Kanauj
(C) Kausambi
(D) Kapilavastu
Ans : (A)

46. The ancient kingdom of “Avanti” had its capital at—
(A) Vaishali
(B) Kausambi
(C) Ujjain
(D) Ayodhya
Ans : (C)

47. When did Vasco-da-Gama come to India—
(A) 1492
(B) 1498
(C) 1398
(D) 1542
Ans : (B)

48. The General who gave the firing order at Jallianwala Bag was—
(A) Tegart
(B) Cornwallis
(C) Simpson
(D) O. Dwyer
Ans : (D)

49. Gandhiji started Satyagraha in 1919 to protest against the—
(A) Rowlatt Act
(B) Salt Law
(C) Act of 1909
(D) Jallianwala Bagh Messacre
Ans : (A)

50. The Britishers come to India as traders and formed company named—
(A) Indo-British Company
(B) The Great Britain Company
(C) Eastern India Company
(D) East India Company
Ans : (D)

51. Mahatma Gandhi was born in—
(A) Wardha
(B) Porbander
(C) Sabarmati
(D) Ahmedabad
Ans : (B)

52. Who gave the slogan “You give me blood, I promise you freedom”?
(A) Bhagat Singh
(B) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Ans : (D)

53. In which State is Jawahar Tunnel located?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Uttaranchal
(C) Goa
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans : (D)

54. Where did the dance form “Mohini Attam” develop?
(A) Manipur
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (B)

55. On selling three articles at the cost of four article, there will be profit of—
(A) 25%
(B) 100/3 %
(C) 75/2%
(D) 40%
Ans : (B)

56. By selling an article for Rs. 40, there is loss of 40%. By selling it for Rs. 80 there is—
(A) Gain of 20%
(B) Loss of 10%
(C) Loss of 20%
(D) Gain of 10%
Ans : (A)

57. A number consists of two digits whose sum is 8. If 8 is subtracted from the number, the digits interchange their places. The number is—
(A) 44
(B) 35
(C) 62
(D) 33
Ans : (D)

58. A horse is tied to a peg hammered at one of the corner of a rectangular grass field of 40 m by 24 m by a rope 14 m long. Over how much area of the field can the horse graze?
(A) 154 m2
(B) 308 m2
(C) 240 m2
(D) 480 m2
Ans : (A)

59. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7 and its perimeter is 30 cm. The length of the greatest side of the triangle in cm is—
(A) 6
(B) 10
(C) 14
(D) 16
Ans : (C)

60. The radius of a right circular cone is 3 cm and its height is 4 cm. The curved surface of the cone will be—
(A) 12 η sq. cm
(B) 15 η sq. cm
(C) 18 η sq. cm
(D) 21 η sq. cm
Ans : (B)

61. The steam engine was invented by—
(A) James Watt
(B) James Prescott Joule
(C) New Commen
(D) Isaac Newton
Ans : (A)

62. Who invented the telephone?
(A) Thomas Alva Edison
(B) Galileo
(C) Alexander Graham Bell
(D) G. Marconi
Ans : (C)

63. Albert Einsten was a famous—
(A) Physician
(B) Chemist
(C) Physicist
(D) Biologist
Ans : (C)

64. The fractions 7/11, 16/20, 21/22 when arranged in descending order is—
(A) 7/11, 16/20, 21/22
(B) 21/22, 7/11, 16/20
(C) 21/22, 16/20, 7/11
(D) 7/11, 21/22, 16/20
Ans : (C)

65. If 10% of a number is subtracted from it, the result is 1800. The number is—
(A) 1900
(B) 2000
(C) 2100
(D) 2140
Ans : (B)

66. The number is just preceding 9909 which is a perfect square is—
(A) 9908
(B) 9900
(C) 9899
(D) 9801
Ans : (D)

67. In banking ATM stands for—
(A) Automated Tallying Machine
(B) Automatic Teller Machine
(C) Automated Totalling Machine
(D) Automated Transaction of Money
Ans : (B)


68. Which amongst the following Abbreviations stands for organization related to Indian Defence forces?
(A) DOD
(B) RDSO
(C) DRDO
(D) DRES
Ans : (C)

69. Which amongst the following Abbreviations stands for organization related to Indian space programme?
(A) NASA
(B) ISO
(C) ISRO
(D) NSAT
Ans : (C)

70. The injection of anti-toxin is given to prevent—
(A) Tetanus
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Typhoid
(D) Filariasis
Ans : (A)

71. Dental caries are due to—
(A) Viral infection
(B) Contaminated water
(C) Bacterial infection
(D) Hereditary causes
Ans : (C)

72. Palak leaves are rich source of—
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Iron
(C) Carotene
(D) Vitamin E
Ans : (B)

73. Which of these is not a mosquito borne disease?
(A) Dengue fever
(B) Malaria
(C) Filariasis
(D) Goitre
Ans : (D)

74. Oranges are rich source of—
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Fats
(C) Proteins
(D) Vitamins
Ans : (D)

75. Which acid is produced when milk gets sour?
(A) Tartaric acid
(B) Butyric acid
(C) Lactic acid
(D) Acetic acid
Ans : (C)

76. AIDS stands for—
(A) Acquired Immune Disease Syndrome
(B) Acquired Immunity Deficient Syndrome
(C) Acquired Immune Deficiency
(D) Acquired Infection Deficiency Syndrome
Ans : (C)

77. Stem cuttings are commonly used for re-growing—
(A) Cotton
(B) Banana
(C) Jute
(D) Sugar Cane
Ans : (D)

78. Persons with which blood group are called universal donors—
(A) AB
(B) A
(C) O
(D) B
Ans : (C)

79. Silk is produced by—
(A) Egg of silkworm
(B) Pupa of silkworm
(C) Larva of silkworm
(D) Insect itself
Ans : (C)

80. Which amongst the following is the train introduced by Indian Railways bringing travel by AC class withing the reach of a common man?
(A) August Kranti
(B) Jan Shatabdi
(C) Garib Rath
(D) Sampark Kranti
Ans : (C)

81. Approximately how many stations are there on the Indian Railway Network?
(A) 6000
(B) 7000
(C) 8000
(D) 9000
Ans : (B)

82. The Headquarters of North Western Railway is at—
(A) Abu Road
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Ajmer
(D) Jaipur
Ans : (D)

83. The new electric railway engines are manufactured in—
(A) Varanasi
(B) Chittaranjan
(C) Patiala
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)

84. Which of the following is true in regard to Indian railway?
(A) It is the cheapest means of transportation
(B) The chief source of income is transportation of goods
(C) It is the only largest employer
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

85. The highest gallantry award in India is—
(A) Ashok Chakra
(B) Paramvir Chakra
(C) Mahavir Chakra
(D) Param Vishista Chakra
Ans : (B)

86. Oscar prize is related to—
(A) Literature
(B) Films
(C) Science
(D) Music
Ans : (B)

87. Arjuna award is given for—
(A) Bravery in the battle field
(B) excellence in archery
(C) excellence in sports
(D) excellent service during emergency
Ans : (C)

88. The first Indian recipient of Nobel Prize in Literature is—
(A) Mother Teresa
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Sorijini Naidu
(D) C.V. Raman
Ans : (B)

89. Bismillah Khan is related to—
(A) Tabla
(B) Sarod
(C) Flute
(D) Shehnai
Ans : (D)

90. Who is the external affairs minister in the present union Cabinet?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Pranab Mukherjee
(C) Priyaranjan Dasmunshi
(D) A.K. Antony
Ans : (B)

91. Who is the present Union Agriculture Minister?
(A) Raghuvansh Prasad Singh
(B) Manishankar Iyyer
(C) Sharad Parwar
(D) Kamalnath
Ans : (C)

92. Who is the present union Tourism and Culture Minister?
(A) Ambika Soni
(B) Kapil Sibbal
(C) Renuka Chaudhary
(D) Sushil Kumar Shinde
Ans : (A)

93. Who is the chairman of senior selection committee in BCCI?
(A) Sunil Gavaskar
(B) Dilip Vengasarkar
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) Chetan Chauhan
Ans : (B)

94. The assembly elections were held recently in two states namely—
(A) Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh and Himachal Pradesh
(C) Himachal Pradesh and Gujarat
(D) Andhra Pradesh and Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (C)

95. Thermometer is related to degree in the same way as clock is related to—
(A) Wall
(B) Tower
(C) Hour
(D) Cock
Ans : (C)

96. The headquarters of the United Nations Union is located at—
(A) Geneva
(B) New York
(C) Rome
(D) Washington
Ans : (B)

97. To work on mobile cell phone which of the following is/are required?
(A) Favourable handset
(B) Sim card
(C) Service provider network
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

98. Find the root value of 36.1 / 102.4—
(A) 61 / 34
(B) 19 / 31
(C) 19 / 32
(D) 19 / 33
Ans : (C)

99. Which of the following keys of personal computer is not available in the key board of traditional typewriters?
(A) Tab
(B) Spacebar
(C) Enter
(D) Backspace
Ans : (C)

100. Which of the following words is not related to the functioning of Internet?
(A) www
(B) http
(C) e-mail
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

SSC Section Officers (Audit) Exam : Solved Paper

General Awareness : Solved Paper

1. Capital formation in an economy depends on:
(A) Total Income
(B) Total demand
(C) Total savings
(D) Total production
Ans : (D)

2. If the tax rate increases with the higher level of Income, it shall be called:
(A) Proportional tax
(B) Progressive tax
(C) Lump sum tax
(D) Regressive tax
Ans : (A)

3. Who painted the master piece Hamsa Damayanti?
(A) Anjolie Ela Menon
(B) Abanindranath Tagore
(C) Amrita Shergill
(D) Raja Ravi Varma
Ans : (D)

4. In India, one-rupee coins and notes and sub sidiary coins are issued by:
(A) the Reserve Bank of India
(B) the Central Government
(C) the State Bank of India
(D) the United Trust of India
Ans : (A)

5. Which is the highest body that approves Five Year Plans in the country?
(A) Planning Committee
(B) Union Cabinet
(C) Parliament
(D) National Development Council
Ans : (D)

6. In India, population density is defined as the number of persons:
(A) per square mile
(B) per lakh square mile
(C) per lakh square kilometre
(D) per square kilometre
Ans : (D)

7. Prime cost is equal to:
(A) Variable cost plus administrative cost
(B) Variable cost plus fixed costs
(C) Variable cost only
(D) Fixed cost only
Ans : (B)

8. New capital issue is placed in:
(A) Secondary market
(B) Grey market
(C) Primary market
(D) Black market
Ans : (C)

9. Bank deposits that can be withdrawn without notice are called:
(A) account payee deposits
(B) fixed deposits
(C) variable deposits
(D) demand deposits
Ans : (D)

10. An expenditure that has been made and cannot be recovered is called:
(A) Variable cost
(B) Opportunity cost
(C) Sunk cost
(D) Operational cost
Ans : (C)

11. The practice of selling goods in a foreign country at a price below their domestic selling price is called:
(A) diplomacy
(B) discrimination
(C) dumping
(D) double pricing
Ans : (C)

12. Who propounded the 'market law'?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) J.B. Say
(C) T.R. Malthus
(D) David Recardo
Ans : (B)

13. Which is NOT a Central Service?
(A) Indian Police Service
(B) Indian Foreign Service
(C) Indian Audit & Accounts Service
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

14. Triple vaccine is administered to a new-born child to immunize it against:
(A) whooping cough, tetanus and measles
(B) whooping cough, tetanus and diphtheria
(C) tetanus, diphtheria, measles and rubella
(D) tetanus, diphtheria, small pox and rubella
Ans : (B)

15. The book "Unto the Last" which influenced Gandhi was authored by:
(A) Boris Yeltsin
(B) John Ruskin
(C) Pushkin
(D) Ruskin Bond
Ans : (B)

16. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the institution of Panchayati Raj?
(A) Article 36
(B) Article 39
(C) Article 40
(D) Article 48
Ans : (C)

17. Which of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom?.
(A) Mandamus
(B) Habeas Corpus
(C) Quo-Warranto
(D) Certiorari
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following does not have an influence over the climate in India?
(A) Monsoons
(B) Ocean currents
(C) Nearness to equator
(D) Presence of Indian Ocean
Ans : (B)

19. How many minutes for each degree of longitude does the local time of any place vary from the Greenwich time?
(A) Two minutes
(B) Four minutes
(C) Six minutes
(D) Eight minutes
Ans : (B)

20. The concept of 'General Will' was advocated by:
(A) Hume
(B) Hegel
(C) Kant
(D) Rousseau
Ans : (D)

21. Who is the highest civil servant of the Union Government?
(A) Attorney-General
(B) Cabinet Secretary
(C) Home Secretary
(D) Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister
Ans : (B)

22. Article 1 of the Constitution declares India as:
(A) Federal State
(B) Quasi-Federal State
(C) Unitary State
(D) Union of States
Ans : (A)

23. Which functionary can be invited to give his opinion in the Parliament?
(A) Attorney-General of India
(D) Chief Justice of India
(C) Chief Election Commissioner of India
(D) Comptroller & Auditor General of India
Ans : (A)

24. Which of the following countries have an Unwritten Constitution?
(A) U.S.A.
(B) U.K.
(C) Pakistan
(D) India
Ans : (A)

25. Lothal is a site where dockyards of which of the following civilization were found?
(A) Indus Valley
(B) Mesopotamian
(C) Egyptian
(D) Persian
Ans : (A)

26. The world famous 'Peacock Throne' was kept in which of the following Mughal buildings?
(A) Diwan-i-Khas at Fatehpur Sikri
(B) New Agra Fort
(C) The Rang Mahal of the Red Fort at Delhi
(D) The Diwan-i-Am of the Red Fort at Delhi
Ans : (D)

27. Which was the birth place of Guru Nanak?
(A) Gurdaspur
(B) Amritsar
(C) Lahore
(D) Talwandi
Ans : (D)

28. Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das were the founder-members of the:
(A) Communist Party of India
(B) Forward Block
(C) Socialist-Swarajist Party
(D) Swarajya Party
Ans : (D)

29. The immortal national song ‘Bande Mataram’ has been written by:
(A) Rabindranath Tagore .
(B) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyaya
(C) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya
(D) Surendranath Bandopadhyaya
Ans : (C)

30. The Mohemmadan Anglo-Oriental College at Aligarh was founded by:
(A) Md. Ali Jinnah
(B) Mohammad Ali
(C) Saukat Ali
(D) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
Ans : (D)

31. Who among the following is generally regarded as the pioneer of Local Self-Government in Modern India?
(A) Ripon
(B) Lytton
(C) Mayo
(D) Curzon
Ans : (A)

32. Which one of the following was not a French settlement in India:
(A) Pondicherry
(B) Mahe
(C) Goa
(D) Chandarnagar
Ans : (C)

33. The famous Kohinoor diamond was produced from one of the mines in:
(A) Orissa
(B) Chhota Nagpur
(C) Bijapur
(D) Golconda
Ans : (D)

34. 'Buddha' means:
(A) The Awakened
(B) The Religious Preacher
(C) The Genius
(D) The Powerful
Ans : (A)

35. Gandhiji considered Khadi as a symbol of:
(A) industrialisation
(B) economic independence
(C) economic growth
(D) moral purity
Ans : (B)

36. "India Wins Freedom" is the autobiography of:
(A) Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Muhammad Ali
(C) Zakir Hussain
(D) Syed Ahmad Khan
Ans : (A)

37. A high growth rate of population is characterised by:
(A) high birth and high death rates
(B) high birth and low death rates
(C) low birth and low death rates
(D) low birth and high death rates
Ans : (B)

38. The Indian Sub-continent was originally a part of:
(A) Jurassic-land
(B) Angara-land
(C) Arya-varta
(D) Gondwana-land
Ans : (D)

39. The tropical grassland is called:
(A) Pampas
(B) Llanas
(C) Savanah
(D) Veld
Ans : (C)

40. The atmosphere is heated mainly by:
(A) Insolation
(B) Conduction
(C) Radiation
(D) Convection
Ans : (C)

41. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of uranium in the world?
(A) Canada
(B) South Africa
(C) Namibia
(D) U.S.A.
Ans : (A)

42. Which of the following methods does not help in conserving soil fertility and moisture?
(A) Contour ploughing
(B) Dry farming
(C) Strip cropping
(D) Shifting agriculture
Ans : (B)

43. In a slanting hilly Indian terrain experiencing more than 200 cms of annual rainfall, which one of the following crops can be cultivated best?
(A) Cotton
(B) Jute
(C) Tobacco
(D) Tea
Ans : (D)

44. Mudumalai Wild-life Sanctuary is located in the State of:
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (C)

45. The narrow stretch of water connecting two Seas is called:
(A) Bay
(B) Peninsula
(C) Isthamus
(D) Strait
Ans : (D)

46. Naga, Khasi and Garo hills are located in:
(A) Purvanchal Ranges
(B) Karakoram Ranges
(C) Zaskar Ranges
(D) Himalaya Ranges
Ans : (D)

47. Laws of heredity was put forward by:
(A) Mendel
(B) Mendeleev
(C) Pavlov
(D) Koch
Ans : (A)

48. A device used for converting a.c. into d.c. is called:
(A) transformer
(B) rectifier
(C) induction oil
(D) dynamo
Ans : (B)

49. Which one of the following can be synthesized by Liver7
(A) Vitamin-A
(B) Vitamin-E
(C) Vitamin-D
(D) Vitamin-K
Ans : (A)

50. Fluid part of blood devoid of corpuscles is called:
(A) Tissue fluid
(B) Plasma
(C) Serum
(D) Lymph
Ans : (B)

51. Which of the following books is written by A.P.J. Abdul Kalam?
(A) Developing India
(B) Science in Today's India
(C) Defence set up in India
(D) Guiding Souls: Dialogues on the purpose of life
Ans : (D)

52. Heart murmur indicates a:
(A) defective valve
(B) poor oxygenation
(C) dislocation of the heart
(D) improper development of muscles
Ans : (A)

53. The language used in writing the scientific name of animals is:
(A) French
(B) Latin
(C) German
(D) Dutch
Ans : (B)

54. The 2008 Olympics will be held in:
(A) Paris
(B) London
(C) Beijing
(D) Lisbon
Ans : (C)

55. Which of the following are not grown in the Kharif season?
(A) Bajra and rice
(B) Maize and jowar
(C) Barley and mustard
(D) ]owar and rice
Ans : (C)

56. In India, rain forests are found in:
(A) Central India
(B) Eastern Ghat
(C) N.E. Himalayas and Western Ghats
(D) N.W. Himalayas and Eastern Ghats
Ans : (C)

57. By-product obtained by soap-industry is:
(A) Caustic soda
(B) Glycerol
(C) Naphthalene
(D) Caustic potash
Ans : (D)

58. Ripe grapes contain:
(A) Fructose
(B) Sucrose
(C) Galactose
(D) Glucose
Ans : (A)

59. Polythene is polymer of:
(A) Ethylene
(B) Propylene
(C) Acetylene
(D) Aniline
Ans : (A)

60. Rayon is made from:
(A) Plastic
(B) Gasoline
(C) Petroleum
(D) Cellulose
Ans : (D)

61. Which one of the following is pure water?
(A) Rain water
(B) Filter water
(C) Tubewell water
(D) Distilled water
Ans : (D)

62. Which silver salt is used for making film for photography?
(A) Silver bromide
(B) Silver chloride
(C) Silver sulphate
(D) Silver nitrate
Ans : (A)

63. Which is used for settling muddy water?
(A) Common salt
(B) Common alum
(C) Aluminium powder
(D) Bleaching powder
Ans : (B)

64. Which is widely used in the plastic industry for manufacturing bakelite?
(A) Ethyl alcohol
(B) Phenol
(C) Orth-cresol
(D) Catechol
Ans : (B)

65. The Round Table Conference at London met for the discussion of:
(A) Provision of Provincial Autonomy
(B) A future Constitution of India
(C) Gandhi's demands for calling off Civil Disobedience Movement
(D) Congress claim to be the sole representative of Indians
Ans : (A)

66. To an astronaut sky appears:
(A) white
(B) rich blue
(C) light blue
(D) dark
Ans : (D)

67. The instrument used to measure the speed of the wind is:
(A) Altimeter
(B) Anemometer
(C) Chronometer
(D) Dosimeter
Ans : (B)

68. Who defined the law of gravitation?
(A) Newton
(B) Archimedes
(C) Galileo
(D) Faraday
Ans : (A)

69. The metal used to make lightning conductors is:
(A) Iron
(B) Aluminium
(C) Copper
(D) Zinc
Ans : (C)

70. 'IC' in computers stands for:
(A) Integrated Charge
(B) Integrated Current
(C) Integrated Circuits.
(D) Internal Circuits
Ans : (C)

Symbiosis Entrance Test (SET), 2007

General Awareness : Solved Paper

1. Which is the first Indian bank to get approval to start normal banking operation in China?
(A) Indian Bank
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) Corporation Bank
(D) State Bank of India
Ans : (D)

2. Saint Gobain is a French—
(A) Glass maker
(B) Perfume
(C) Tourist spot
(D) Saint
Ans : (A)

3. Mercedes sedans are assembled in which town of Maharashtra?
(A) Nashik
(B) Baramatti
(C) Pimpri
(D) Pune
Ans : (D)

4. The company whose chemical plant in Bhopal had a disastrous gas leak in 1984 was—
(A) Carbide Ltd
(B) Union Carbide
(C) Deepak Fertilizer
(D) Saurashtra Chemicals
Ans : (B)

5. Business Line is the name of the newspaper that belongs to the stable of—
(A) The Times of India
(B) The Hindu
(C) Hindustan Times
(D) The Indian Express
Ans : (B)

6. 'Know Now'. This is the base line of a brand, 150 years old, that is in the business of providing information to its customers. Which company?
(A) Reuters
(B) Dow Jones
(C) AFP
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following companies has started a rural marketing network called "e-chaupal'?
(A) ITC
(B) Dabur
(C) Hindustan Lever
(D) Procter & Gamble
Ans : (A)

8. C.K. Prahalad, praising their supply chain, described them as "a model of managerial and organizational simplicity." Whom did he refer to?
(A) Maharashtra's sabji mandis
(B) Mumbai's Dabbawallahs
(C) Fast food joints of Mumbai
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

9. In 1987, when faced with tough competition from an unlikely player, the top brass of Hindustan lever plotted a strategy to inhibit its growth. They called it project STING. Who was the competitor?
(A) Rin
(B) Ariel
(C) Nirma
(D) Tide
Ans : (C)

10. Which famous corporate's head quarters is known as Bush House—
(A) CNN
(B) CNBC
(C) BBC
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

11. The countries included in the 6-party talk regarding the Nuclear programme of North Korea are—
(A) US, Canada, China, North Korea, South Korea and Japan
(B) US, Russia, China, North Korea, South Korea and Japan
(C) US, Russia, UK, France, North Korea and South Korea
(D) US, UK, North Korea, South Korea and Japan
Ans : (B)

12. Which of the following is measured on the Richter scale?
(A) Density of liquids
(B) Magnitude of earthquakes
(C) Velocity of tornadoes
(D) Height of mountains
Ans : (B)

13. For a time difference of one hour the longitudinal distance is equal to—
(A) 1 degree
(B) 4 degrees
(C) 10 degrees
(D) 15 degrees
Ans : (A)

14. Which of the following is the first surface-to-surface missile in India?
(A) Prithvi
(B) Trishul
(C) Agni
(D) Nag
Ans : (A)

15. CTBT is a term related to—
(A) Nuclear Weapons
(B) Taxes
(C) Space Research
(D) Railway Goods
Ans : (A)

16. How many Stock Exchanges in India are recognized by government of India?
(A) 24
(B) 36
(C) 20
(D) 15
Ans : (A)

17. WMD stands for—
(A) Weapons of Mass Destruction
(B) World Minerals Directory
(C) Wildlife Management Director
(D) World Monetary Distributors
Ans : (A)

18. Thumbelina was recently in news for—
(A) Being declared as the world's smallest horse
(B) Being declared as the best fairy tale
(C) Being the latest addition in Mobile Technology
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

19. EYCIN is—
(A) Ointment for dissolving Cataract
(B) Eye-controlled Interaction with Computer
(C) Acronym for Interaction of European Youth Community
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

20. The Kamakhya temple is situated in—
(A) Madurai in Tamil Nadu
(B) Guwahati in Assam
(C) Trichur in Kerala
(D) Halebid in Karnataka
Ans : (B)

21. The unit cell of nervous system is—
(A) Axons
(B) Dendrites
(C) Neuron
(D) Neuralgia
Ans : (C)

22. What is the life expectancy in India?
(A) 30 years
(B) 40 years
(C) 62 years
(D) 80 years
Ans : (C)

23. Present National Health Programme is—
(A) Sinusitis eradication programme
(B) Fertility control programme
(C) Polio eradication programme
(D) Malnutrition eradication programme
Ans : (C)

24. The interchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and tissues is called—
(A) Excretion
(B) Respiration
(C) Perspiration
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

25. The kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder and urethra are the organs of—
(A) Respiratory System
(B) Excretory System
(C) Reproductive System
(D) Digestive System
Ans : (B)

26. Platelets is associated with—
(A) Synovial fluid
(B) Blood
(C) Cerebrospinal Fluid
(D) Bile
Ans : (B)

27. The considerable decrease in number of Red Blood Cells leads to a condition known as—
(A) Anaemia
(B) Leucocytosis
(C) Hernia
(D) Hypertension
Ans : (A)

28. The lack of insulin results in to—
(A) Hepatitis
(B) Sinusitis
(C) Diabetes
(D) Meningitis
Ans : (C)

29. The fluid part of the blood is known as—
(A) Haemoglobin
(B) Plasma
(C) Erythrocytes
(D) Leucocytes
Ans : (B)

30. The main activity/activities of digestive system is—
(A) Ingestion
(B) Digestion
(C) Elimination
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

31. The process of writing computer instructions in a programming language is known as—
(A) Coding
(B) Processing
(C) Programming
(D) File
Ans : (A)

32. A program used to start the computer is—
(A) Compiler
(B) System software
(C) Boot
(D) Interpreter
Ans : (B)

33. The main function(s) of CAD is (are)—
(A) Drafting
(B) Geometric modelling
(C) Documentation
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)

34. A circuit which can store information is known as—
(A) Integrated circuit
(B) Chip
(C) Memory cell
(D) Accumulator
Ans : (A)

35. An important character of memory is—
(A) Access time
(B) Real time
(C) Delay time
(D) Down time
Ans : (B)

36. A computer requires a set of instructions, called ………………..which tells the computer how to perform a particular task—
(A) Software
(B) Interpreter
(C) Compiler
(D) Controller
Ans : (A)

37. A……………….converts text or images on paper documents into an electronic format that the computer can display, print and store.
(A) Disk formatter
(B) Modem
(C) Scanner
(D) Graphic storage device
Ans : (C)

38. People who illegally copy, distribute, or modify software are called?
(A) Hackers
(B) Software pirates
(C) Emulators
(D) Debuggers
Ans : (B)

39. The smallest unit of information in a computer is a—
(A) Byte
(B) Character
(C) Bit
(D) Word
Ans : (C)

40. Which of the following is not a computer language?
(A) Windows 98
(B) PASCAL
(C) FORTRAN
(D) C++
Ans : (A)

41. Who is the Union Minister for Law in India?
(A) V.K. Bharadwaj
(B) Hansraj Bharadwaj
(C) Arun Jaitley
(D) Ram Jethmalani
Ans : (B)

42. In the Jessica Lal Murder Case one of the following persons was held guilty.
(A) Anuj Sharma
(B) Manu Sharma
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

43. TADA stands for—
(A) Terrorist and Disruptive Activities
(B) Terrorist Arms Disruptive Activities
(C) Trade of Arms, Disturbance Act
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

44. The person to be elected as the President of India should be of at least—
(A) Twenty-five years of age
(B) Thirty-five years of age
(C) Forty-five years of age
(D) Forty years of age
Ans : (B)

45. One of the following rights is not a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution—
(A) Right to life
(B) Right to equality
(C) Freedom of speech and expression
(D) Right to property
Ans : (D)

46. All the contracts of the government of India are made in the name of—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Home Minister
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

47. The subject matter of Right to Information Act is—
(A) Information & Technology
(B) Political Information
(C) Official Documents
(D) All of them
Ans : (C)

48. The Information Technology Act was passed in the year—
(A) 2000
(B) 1999
(C) 2005
(D) 2001
Ans : (A)

49. One of the following is the most essential ingredient for enforceability of Contract—
(A) Exchange
(B) Currency
(C) Consent
(D) Free Consent
Ans : (C)

50. If the President wishes to resign, to whom should he address the resignation?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Vice President
(D) Either (A) or (C)
Ans : (C)

Uttar Pradesh P.C.S (Pre) Exam : Solved Paper

Public Administration : Solved Paper
(Held On 9-12-2006)


1. While preparing the Budget the Ministry of Finance asks from the Ministries of the Government—
(A) Actual figures of previous year
(B) Sanctioned and revised estimates of the current year
(C) Estimates for the next year
(D) All the above

2. Which of the following state-ments about the significance of Public Administration are cor-rect ?
1. Public Administration is a good creative force in the man’s welfare as its ideal.
2. No Government can exist without administration.
3. One of the main functions of administration is to facilitate social change.
4. Beneficiariesofadministration are almost negligible.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

3. Which one of the following has been suggested by Henri Fayol as an alternative to ‘Through proper channel’ ?
(A) Grapevine
(B) Gangplank
(C) Gossip
(D) Graphic

4. The book “Public Administration in a Time of Turbulence” talks about—
(A) Crisis of American Demo-cracy
(B) New Public Administration
(C) Technological applications in Public Administration
(D) Politics Administration Dichotomy

5. Which one of the following is important features of New Public Administration’ ?
(A) Structural adjustment
(B) Social relevance
(C) Scientific selection of employee
(D) Rationality in decision mak-ing

6. Administration does not in-clude—
(A) Group activity
(B) Co-operation among the members of the group
(C) Co-ordination among activi-ties of participants
(D) Equal participation of mem-bers of the group

7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Woodrow Wilson has defined Administration as a detailed and systematic appli-cation of law.
Reason (R) : Every specific appli-cation of law is not administra-tion.
In the context of the above sentences which of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

8. Who of the following believed that ‘administration essentially involved reconciliation, involv-ing individuals as well as social groups’ ?
(A) Chester Barnard
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) M. P. Follet

9. Arrange the following in their correct chronological sequence by using the code given at the end—
1. Minnowbrook Conference
2. Hawthorne Experiments
3. Scientific Management Move-ment
4. Michigan Research
5. Comparative Administration Group
code :
(A) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
(B) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
(D) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3

10. Which of the following factors are responsible for the increasing importance of Public Adminis-tration in modern times ?
1. Emergence of Welfare State.
2. Scientific and technological advancement.
3. Rapid increase in population.
4. Economic planning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

11. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The distinction between Public and Private Administrat ion is narrowing down.
Reason (R) : The New Public Administration stresses upon public choice approach.
Inthecontext of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

12. Each Department-related Stand-ing Committee of the Indian Parliament consists of—
(A) 20 members from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
(B) 30 members from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha
(C) 45 members from only Lok Sabha
(D) 40 Members from only Rajya Sabha

13. Characteristics of Line agencies include—
1. They perform functions necessary to accomplish objectives.
2. They possess authority to issue directives.
3. They come in direct contact with people.
4. They do not come in conflict with staff agencies.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

14. Which one of the following state-ments is not correct regarding the functions and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor Gene-ral of India ?
(A) He examines the accounts of the Union Government and sub-mits his report to the President
(B) He examines the accounts of the State Governments and submits his report to the Governor of the concerned State
(C) He exercises administrative control over the Audit Officers of the State Governments
(D) If any House needs any information from him, he makes it available through Public Accounts Committee

15. The principles of communication as suggested by Chester Barnard include—
1. Channels of communication should be defined.
2. Line of communication must be as direct and short as possible.
3. Line of communication must function without interruption.
4. Communicators serving the system should be trained periodically.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

16. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Herzberg calls satisfiers as intrinsic factors.
Reason (R) : His studies identi-fied ‘dissatisfiers which are called as extrinsic factors’.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

17. Which one of the following is not an assumption of theory ‘y’ as propounded by McGregor ?
(A) Work is as natural as play and rest for human being
(B) Average human being seeks responsibility
(C) Human potentialities are partially utilised by organisa-tions
(D) Human being wants more security than liberty

18. The idea of ‘Bounded rationality in decision making’ was deve-loped by—
(A) Lindblom
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Dror
(D) Chester Barnard

19. Match List-I with List-II and selectthe correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(Theories)
(a) Achievement motivation
(b) Expectancy
(c) Equity
(d) ERG

List-II
(Authors)
1. Victor Vroom
2. Alderfer
3. David McClelland
4. J. Stay Adams
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 4 2 1

20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(Models of Decision)
(a) Bounded Rationality Model
(b) Incremental Model
(c) Mixed Scanning Model
(d) Optimal Model

List-II
(Propounder)
1. Dror
2. Etizioni
3. Lindblom
4. Herbert Simon
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 2 4 3 1

21. The concept of ‘Linking Pin’ was propounded by—
(A) Mayo
(B) Likert
(C) Herzberg
(D) Maslow

22. Who of the following charac-terises the powers and authority of bureaucracy as ‘New Des-potism’ ?
(A) Harold Laski
(B) Ramsay Muir
(C) Lord Hewart
(D) Lord Acton

23. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In Barnard’s view Authority is not a command but the acceptance of the order by the juniors.
Reason (R) : Behaviouralists believe that Hierarchy is the best way to command and control juniors.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

24. The Path-Goal theory of leader-ship was developed by—
(A) Evans and Robert House
(B) Alderfer and Evans
(C) Hersey and Blanchard
(D) Blake and Mouton

25. Consider the following two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : Co-ordination is collective action of persons while co-operation is synchronization of efforts.
Reason (R) : Co-ordination results in harmonious and uni-fied actions to a stated objective.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

26. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A sound recruit-ment policy is a must for proper and effective personnel admini-stration.
Reason (R) : A neutral personnel system ensures efficiency in administration.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

27. Which of the following are safe-guards against the evils of bureaucracy ?
1. Decentralisation of authority.
2. Fair and efficient personnel management.
3. Centralisation of authority.
4. Effective control of the Parliament and Cabinet.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four

28. James Buchanan and Gordon Tullock are associated with—
(A) Public Choice Theory
(B) New Public Management
(C) Good Governance
(D) Entrepreneurial Govern-ment

29. Who of the following thinkers is known as ‘Prophet in Manage-ment’ ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Mary Parker Follet
(C) Elton Mayo
(D) F. W. Taylor

30. Which one of the following state-mentsisnotapplicableto Herbert Simon’s decision making model ?
(A) Administrative man maxi-mises.
(B) Factual elements can be evaluated.
(C) Most decisions are com-posite.
(D) Decisions can be influenced.

31. Four systems of leadership were developed by—
(A) Keith Davis
(B) Likert
(C) Robert House
(D) Fred Fiedler

32. Match List-I with List-II in respect of difference between Public Administration and Pri-vate Administration and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(Views of )
(a) Paul H. Appleby
(b) Sir Josia Stamp
(c) Herbert Simon
(d) Peter Drucker

List-II
(Difference on account of)
1. Red-tape
2. Performance management
3. Public accountability
4. Service motive
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 1 4 2

33. Which one of the following statements about the training of personnel is not correct ?
(A) It is an investment in human resource development.
(B) Training can be only formal.
(C) It is a tool of improving the efficiency of personnel.
(D) It helps to raise the morale of personnel.

34. Which one of the following areas was not recommended by the Administrative Reforms Com-mission for creation of All India Specialist Services ?
(A) Economic Administration
(B) Industrial Administration
(C) Agriculture and Rural Deve-lopment
(D) Urban employment and poverty alleviation.

35. According to Riggs ‘Sala’ repre-sents—
(A) The administrative sub-system of a prismatic society.
(B) The administrative sub-system of a diffracted society.
(C) The administrative sub- system of a fused society.
(D) The administrative sub-system of a democratic society.

36. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The Rajamannar Committee recommended the abolition of IAS and IPS.
Reason (R) : The IAS and IPS violate the principles of fede-ralism and ministerial responsi-bility at the State level.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

37. Recruitment to the lower ranks of Civil Services is made by—
(A) Administrative Staff College
(B) Ministry of Personnel
(C) Staff Selection Commission
(D) Union Public Service Com-mission

38. The Theory of Scientific Mana-gement basically deals with—
(A) Human behaviour
(B) The best way
(C) Cybernatic system
(D) Informal groups

39. Mid-career training in the IAS and IPS helps in developing—
1. Conceptual skills
2. Professional skills
3. Behavioural skills
4. Pedagogical skills
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4

40. Which one of the following countries provides maximum facilities to Civil Servants for participating in political autho-rities ?
(A) Canada
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Switzerland
(D) U.K.

41. Fulton Committee submitted its report on British Civil Service in the year—
(A) 1960
(B) 1966
(C) 1968
(D) 1970

42. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Consti-tution enjoins that “No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law” ?
(A) Article 113
(B) Article 117
(C) Article 203
(D) Article 265

43. Project formulation does not look at—
(A) That the project is tech-nically sound.
(B) That it provides a good economic return.
(C) That it aims at moral uplift of society.
(D) That it is capable of being completed with available resour-ces.

44. In India, who of the following is responsible for the detailed maintenance of accounts of expenditure in the Government ?
(A) Accountant General
(B) Secretary of the Administra-tive Department
(C) Director of Treasuries
(D) Finance Secretary

45. Which one of the following has not been included in the classification of Authority by Max-Weber ?
(A) Legal rational authority
(B) Charismatic authority
(C) Political authority
(D) Traditional authority

46. In the writing of which of the following thinkers, efficiency is a dependent variable ?
1. Gulick and Urwick
2. Riggs
3. Weber
4. Simon
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

47. Which one of the following thinkers believed that the “authority belongs to the job and stays with the job” ?
(A) Oliver Sheldon
(B) Chester Barnard
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) Mary Parker Follet

48. Which of the following are the advantages of Zero-based bud-geting ?
1. It eliminates low-priority pro-grammes.
2. It improves programme effec-tiveness dramatically.
3. It presents the programmes and accomplishments in financial and physical terms.
4. It lays highest emphasis on programmes in order to obtain more finance.
5. It reduces tax incidence.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(D) All the five

49. Who of the following said that “the real significance of the budget system lies in providing for the orderly administration of financial affairs of Govern- ment” ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) A. Wildavasky
(C) Chris Argyris
(D) Lindblom

50. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India has authorised the Parliament to create a Conting-ency Fund of India.
Reason (R) : The Contingency Fund of India enables the Government to meet out any unforeseen expenditure.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

51. Executive control out adminis-tration is exercised through—
1. Execution of administrative policy.
2. Order issued by supervisors.
3. Necessity to obtain prior approval.
4. System of rewards and punishments.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

52. In India the Union Government is bound to resign after passing of the—
(A) Censure motion
(B) No-confidence motion
(C) Adjournment motion
(D) Calling attention motion

53. The Railway Budget was separa-ted from the main budget of India in—
(A) 1860
(B) 1919
(C) 1921
(D) 1935

54. Which of the following are means of effective citizens’ control over administration ?
1. Creation of good number of public welfare committees.
2. Intellectuals coming forward and taking the lead.
3. Responsible behaviour of political parties.
4. Associaton of people with decision-making process at appropriate levels.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

55. Which one of the following is not the responsibility of District Magistrate ?
(A) Public distribution system.
(B) Implementation of poverty alleviation programmes.
(C) Collection of Income Tax
(D) Maintenance of law and order.

56. In which one of the following parts of the Constitution of India has the provision for Panchayati Raj been made ?
(A) IX
(B) IV
(C) III
(D) IX A

57. The Parliamentary Committee on Public Undertakings was set up on the recommendation of—
(A) Krishna Menon Committee
(B) Appleby Committee
(C) Estimates Committee
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General

58. Nooruddin Committee on the training of Municipal Personnel was constituted in the year—
(A) 1962
(B) 1963
(C) 1964
(D) 1965

59. In practice, the Prime Minister is very powerful at the start of his term and reinforces his strength through periodic reshuffles in the Council of Ministers. The latter exercise raises the impor-tance of—
(A) Parliament
(B) Ministries
(C) Cabinet Secretariat
(D) Prime Minister’s Office

60. The Prime Minister presides over—
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Knowledge Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Population Commission

61. Communication
1. is shared understanding of a shared purpose.
2. is meeting of minds on common issues.
3. always follows the formal structure.
4. has to be understood in order to have force of authority.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

62. Which one of the following is not involved in the preparation of plan for development in a district of Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) Gram Panchayat
(B) Kheshtra Panchayat
(C) D.R.D.A.
(D) District Planning Committee

63. Good governance by a municipal body, among other things, depends upon—
1. Committed elected represen-tatives.
2. Committed municipal bureaucracy.
3. Awakened citizenry.
4. State vigilance on its func-tioning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

64. Crisis of identity as a stage in the evolution of Public Admini-stration belongs to the period—
(A) 1940 – 47
(B) 1948 – 70
(C) 1971 – 90
(D) 1991 onwards

65. The District Collector
1. is a multi-functional autho-rity.
2. works on the principle of anonymity.
3. has no concern with election.
4. is an important link in the administration of the State.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3

66. Which of the following state-ments about the scope of Public Administration are true ?
1. Posdcorb view of scope of Public Administration has its limitations.
2. Different agencies face different problems.
3. Substance of administration is different from tools of administration.
4. posdcorb view is subject-oriented.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

67. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Second Finance Commission in Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) A. P. Singh
(B) Yashpal Singh
(C) T. N. Dhar
(D) B. N. Tiwari

68. Which one of the following is the first Public Corporation created in independent India ?
(A) Life Insurance Corporation
(B) Damodar Valley Corpora-tion
(C) Food Corporation
(D) Central Warehousing Cor-poration

69. Which one of the following does not have a Municipal Corpora-tion ?
(A) Varanasi
(B) Meerut
(C) Gorakhpur
(D) Rampur

70. In a broader sense, Public Administration is related to the functions of—
1. Legislature
2. Executive
3. Government
4. Judiciary
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

71. Classical Theory of Administra-tion has been criticized because
1. it is an unscientific theory of organisation.
2. it neglected the sociological and psychological dimen-sions.
3. its principles do not have universal relevance.
4. it treats an organisation “as an open system”.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) Laws, delegation etc.
(b) Positional theory of Autho-rity
(c) Acceptance theory of Autho-rity
(d) Types of authority classifica-tion

List-II
1. Behaviouralists
2. Max Weber
3. Classical Thinkers
4. Source of Authority
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 2 1 4 3

73. “Co-ordination is the beginning and the end of all organised efforts.” This statement was made by—
(A) Luther Gulick
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) J. D. Mooney
(D) F. M. Marx

74. Who of the following said that ‘Cabinet’ is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the executive and the legislative departments together ?
(A) Lowell
(B) Laski
(C) Muir
(D) Bagehot

75. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Prime Minister is the Primus enter pares in a Cabinet form of Government.
Reason (R) : His position is undermined by the dominant leaders of political parties in a Coalition Government.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

76. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The Governor is appointed by the President of India and remains in office during his pleasure.
Reason (R) : The power to hire and fire the Governor is exclu-sively available to the President.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

77. Taylorism became popular as ‘Stakhanovit movement’ in—
(A) U.S.S.R.
(B) Germany
(C) Britain
(D) Japan

78. An organisation
1. consists of unstructured rela-tionshipsbetween individuals
2. is a system of consciously co-ordinated activities
3. always works for a purpose
4. functions with the help of an informal organisation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

79. Which one of the following statements about ‘Responsibility’ is NOT correct ?
(A) Responsibility is the obliga-tion of a person to achieve mutually determined results
(B) Operating responsibility is delegated to the subordinates
(C) Authority and responsibility exist independently
(D) Ultimate responsibility can-not be delegated

80. Which of the following statements about Parkinson’s Law are true ?
1. There is little or no relation-ship between the work and the size of the staff.
2. Work expands to fill the time available for its com-pletion.
3. Parkinson’s Second Law states that expenditure rises to meet income.
4. The growth of administra-tive hierarchies is dependent upon the increase in work.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

81. Which of the following state-ments about ‘Delegation’ are correct ?
1. It helps in increasing sense of responsibility among emplo-yees.
2. Implementation of critical programmes needs extensive delegation.
3. Lack of effective means of internal communication han-dicaps delegation.
4. It facilitates approval of new programmesbysubordinates.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4

82. Consider the following state-ments—
Assertion (A) : An adminsitra-tive organisation is an open social system.
Reason (R) : Systems approach favours a flexible participative structure.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

83. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) Charismatic authority
(b) Legalrational authority
(c) Traditional authority
(d) Legitimate authority

List-II
1. Obedience to the ruler.
2. Obedience by virtue of per-sonal trust.
3. Obedience because of adher-ence to rules and proce-dures.
4. Obedience of the command as voluntary.
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 4 1 2

84. The constitution of Public Accounts Committee, first sug-gested by the Webly Commission in 1896, now has members from—
(A) Lok Sabha only
(B) Rajya Sabha only
(C) Both the Houses
(D) AsnomineesofthePresident

85. Headquarters’ control over field administration is exercised through the methods of—
1. Reports
2. Administrative Manuals
3. Inspection
4. Investigation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four

86. Which of the following are deter-mined by the budget ?
1. Financial and managerial accountability of the execu-tive to the legislature.
2. Subordinate’s accountability to superior official in the executive.
3. Legislative accountability to the judiciary.
4. Government departments’ accountability to the Finance Commission.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 4

87. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act has provided for—
1. constitutional status to Panchayati Raj bodies.
2. one-third reservation for women.
3. a separate test of subjects.
4. a separate Ministry in the Centre.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four

88. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) The Ecology of Public Administration
(b) The Golden Book of Mana-gement
(c) The Administrative State
(d) Economy and Society

List-II
1. Urwick
2. Riggs
3. Weber
4. Waldo
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 3 4

89. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The role of the Collector in developmental functions has decreased during the past few years.
Reason (R) : The Collectors are preoccupied with many other things.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct expla-nation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

90. Which one of the following is not included in the Panchayati Raj System ?
(A) Zilla Panchayat
(B) Village Panchayat
(C) Nagar Panchayat
(D) Kheshtra Panchayat

91. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) Centralization
(b) Decentralization
(c) Demerit of centralization
(d) Demerit of decentralization

List-II
1. Delay in securing action by the field officials.
2. Unsuitable for dealing with emergencies.
3. Concentration of authority at top level.
4. Transfer of authority to lower levels.
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 3 4 1 2

92. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) N.C.R. and Union Territory of Delhi are two entities
(B) N.C.R. and Union Territory of Delhi have same boundaries
(C) U.T. of Delhi has one single Local Government institution
(D) Development of N.C.R is the sole concern of Central Govern-ment

93. Given below are two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : The election system and working of Panchayati Raj institutions is similar in all the States.
Reason (R) : 73rd Amendment has introduced certain unifor-mity in the Panchayati Raj system.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

94. Who of the following said that co-ordination is the first princi-ple of organisation ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Williams
(C) James D. Mooney
(D) Chester Barnard

95. Select the correct sequence of the following administrative events by using the code given at the end—
1. Pendleton Act, U.S.A.
2. All India Service Act.
3. Setting up of Kothari Com-mission on Recruitment Policy and Selection Method.
4. Constitution of Fulton Com-mitteeon British Civil Service.
code :
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3
(B) 2, 3, 1, 4
(C) 3, 4, 2, 1
(D) 4, 3, 1, 2

96. Which of the following state-ments are correct ?
1. The generalist-specialist con-troversy is dead now.
2. Persons with specialized educational background enter the civil service in increasing number.
3. Specialists compete with generalists in the power-game.
4. A generalist by virtue of his grooming is disliked by political executives in the Secretariat.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

97. ‘Administrative Man’ model represents the real situation by—
(A) Organisation behaviour
(B) Decision-making behaviour
(C) Money-making behaviour
(D) Supportive behaviour

98. According to Gulick, three major factors determine the ‘span of control’ of an executive.
Which one of the following is not the factor ?
(A) Element of purpose
(B) Element of time
(C) Element of space
(D) Element of diversification of functions

99. Development Administration in India is mainly concerned with—
(A) The development of heavy industries
(B) Maintenance of law and order
(C) Economic development and promotion of social justice
(D) Redressal of public grie-vances

100. ‘Span of Control’ stands for—
1. Span of communication
2. Span of management
3. Span of units of work
4. Span of attention
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

101. Which of the following are cor-rect as measures to reduce line-staff conflicts ?
1. Clear demarcation of the responsibilities of the two.
2. Creation of opportunities for exchange of roles.
3. Laying emphasis on unity of purpose.
4. Maintenance of anonymity by staff agencies.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

102. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Talcott Parsons is known for his Structural-Func-tional Approach.
Reason (R) : Functionally dif-fused, functionally specific and intermediate societies cannot be compared.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

103. The Comparative Public Admi-nistration emphasizes that—
1. The Principles of Public Administration are seriously inadequate.
2. Any proper discipline must have complementary pure and applied aspects.
3. Organisation must be viewed as embedded in specific cultures and poli-tical settings.
4. Both the study and practice of administration are per-vasively value-loaded,
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

104. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of steps in Recruitment process ?
(A) Induction, Selection, Proba-tion and Appointment
(B) Selection, Appointment, Probation and Induction
(C) Appointment, Probation, Selection and Induction
(D) Selection, Probation, Induc-tion and Appointmen

105. Consider the following two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : Job-oriented supervisors do not permit the participation of subordinates in decision-making process.
Reason (R) : They exert little pressure on subordinates.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explana-tion of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

106. U.P. State Employees Welfare Corporation is a—
(A) Public Corporation
(B) Government Company
(C) Joint Stock Company
(D) Registered Society

107. Who of the following was the first to make a distinction bet-ween ‘power’ and ‘authority’ ?
(A) M. P. Follett
(B) Max Weber
(C) Kautilya
(D) Frank Goodnow

108. During the course of working of personnel, learning and achiev-ing administrative efficiency is known as—
(A) Informal training
(B) Formal training
(C) Post-entry training
(D) Orientation training

109. Which of the following consi-derations are taken into account while granting promotion ?
1. Merit
2. Length of Service
3. Integrity
4. Age
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

110. Which of the following are Constitutional Commissions in India ?
1. Election Commission
2. Planning Commission
3. Human Rights Commission
4. Finance Commission
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

111. Consider the following two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : According to Chester Barnard, leadership depends upon three things – individual, followers and the conditions.
Reason (R) : According to Chester Barnard, there are three styles of leadership-trait, beha-vioural and situational.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explana-tion of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

112. ‘Greatman’ Theory of Leader-ship led to the rise of—
(A) Behavioural Theory of Leadership
(B) Situational Theory of Leadership
(C) Trait Theory of Leadership
(D) None of the above

113. The powers of Parliament in respect of passage of the Budget are enshrined in the Constitu-tion in—
(A) Art. 114
(B) Art. 113 & 203
(C) Art. 265 to 267
(D) Art. 112 to 117

114. The traditional type of budget-ing is concerned with—
(A) Program Budgeting
(B) Lump-sum Budgeting
(C) Line-item Budgeting
(D) Performance Budgeting

115. The Budget was formally intro-duced in India in—
(A) 1857
(B) 1860
(C) 1868
(D) 1919

116. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Administrative decisions in Government cannot possibly be evaluated through scientific methods.
Reason (R) : Administrative decisions in Government involve facts and value premises.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explana-tion of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

117. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of the pri-nciple of ‘Unity of Command’ ?
(A) More than one superior official should command the subordinates
(B) There should be uniformity in commands by higher officials
(C) Subordinates must receive command from only one higher official.
(D) Subordinate should follow the commands from all the superior officials

118. The classical theorists attached more importance to—
(A) Role of people in organisa-tion
(B) Structural designing of organisation
(C) Inter-personal relations in organisation
(D) Rational bureaucracy

119. Which one of the following is correct about ‘Behavioural Approach’ ?
(A) Use of traditional tools of analysis.
(B) Use of non-ecological studies.
(C) Belief in philosophical defi-nition of the term.
(D) Use of empirical studies.

120. ‘Acceptance theory of Autho-rity’ was propounded by—
(A) Chester Barnard
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Robert Merton
(D) Elton Mayo

Answers with Explanations :
1. (D)
2. (C) Public Administration is a good creative force in the man’s welfare as its ideal. No Govern-ment can exist without admini-stration. One of the main func-tions of administration is to facilitate social change.
3. (B)Henri Fayol has suggested Gangplank as an alternative to ‘Through proper channel’ in the organisation.
4. (B) The book Public Adminis-tration in a Time of Turbulence by Dwight Waldo in (1971) talks about New Public Adminis-tration.
5. (B)Social relevance is the impor-tant feature of New Public Admi-nistration.
6. (D)Administration includes group activity, cooperation among the members of the group and coordination among the activities of participants.
7. (C)Woodrow Wilson defined Public Administration as detai-led and systematic study of law.
8. (A)AccordingtoChester Barnard Administration essentially is related to reconciliation, involv-ing individual as well as social groups.

9. (B)The correct chronological sequence of the major events in Public Administration—
1. Scientific Management Movement.
2. Hawthorne Experiments (1924-1932)
3. Michigan Research (1946).
4. Comparative Administrative Group (1960)
5. Minnowbrook Conference (1968).

10. (D)The factors responsible for the increasing importance of Public Administration in modern times are as follows—
1. Emergence of welfare state.
2. Scientific and technological advancement.
3. Rapid increase in popula-tion.
4. Economic planning.

11. (C)The distinction between Public and Private Administra-tion is narrowing down.
12. (B)Each Department-related Standing Committee of Indian Parliament consist of 45 mem-bers—30 members from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha.

13. (C) Characteristics of the Line Agencies include—
1. They perform functions necessary to accomplish objectives.
2. They possess authority to issue directives.
3. They come in direct contact with people.

14. (C)Comptroller Auditor General examines the account of the Union Government and submits his report to the President. He examines the accounts of the State Government and submits his report to the Governor of the concerned/state. If any House seeks any information from him he makes it available through PAC.
15. (D)All the four statement are correct.
16. (B)Herzberg calls satisfiers as intrinsic factors. His studies identifier ‘dissatisfiers’ which he calls ‘extrinsic factors’.
17. (D) y theory propounded by Douglas McGregor assumes that work is as natural as play and rest for human being. Average human being seeks responsibility and human potentialities are partially utilised by organi-sations. Emphasis on security is not inherent human charac-teristic but a consequence of experience.
18. (B) The idea of Bounded rationa-lity in decision making was developed by Herbert Simon.

19. (C) Match the following—
(A) Achievement motivation—David McClelland
(B) Expectancy theory—Victor Vrom
(C) Equity —J. Stay Adams
(D) ERG —Alderfer

20. (A)
(i) Bounded Rationality Model —Herbert Simon
(ii) Incremental Model —Lindblom
(iii) Mixed Scanning Model —Etizioni
(iv) Optimal Model —Dror

21. (B) The concept of linking pen was propounded by Likert.
22. (C) LordHewartcharacterises the powers and authority of bureau-cracy as New Despotism.
23. (B) In Barnard’s view Authority is not a command but the acceptance of the order by the juniors. Behavouralists believe that Hierarchy is the best way to command and control juniors.
24. (A) The Path-Goal theory of leadership was developed by Evans and Robert House.
25. (D) Co-ordination is the synchro-nization of efforts while co-operation is the collective action. Co-ordination results in harmo-nious and unified actions to a related objective.
26. (B) A sound recruitment policy is a must for proper and effective personnel administration. A neutral personnel system ensures efficiency in administration.
27. (C) Decentralisation of authority, fair and efficient personnel management and effective con-trolof theParliamentand Cabinet are safeguards against evils of bureaucracy.
28. (A) James Buchanan and Gordon Tullock are associated with Public Choice Theory.
29. (D)
30. (C) In Herbert Simon decision making model administrative man maximises, factual elements can be evaluated and decisions can be influenced.
31. (B) Rensis Likert developed four system of leadership.
32. (B)
33. (B) Training can both be formal and informal.
34. (D) ARC recommended creation of All India Specialist Services for Economic, Industrial, Agri-cultural and Rural Adminis-tration.
35. (A) According to Riggs ‘Sala’ represents the administrative sub-systemof a prismatic society.
36. (A)
37. (C) Recruitment to the lower ranks of Civil Services is made by Staff Selection Commission.
38. (B) The theory of Scientific Mana-gement basically deals with the best way.
39. (A) Mid-career training in the IAS and IPS helps in developing conceptual skills, professional skills, behavioural skills.
40. (C) Switzerland provides maxi-mum facilities to civil servants for participating in political authorities.
41. (C) Fulton Committee submitted its report on British Civil Services in the year of 1968.
42. (D) Article 265 of the Indian Constitution enjoins “No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law”.
43. (C) Project formulation looks at that the project is technically sound, that it is capable of being completed with available resour-ces and that it provides good economic return.
44. (A) In India, Accountant General is responsible for the detailed maintenance of accounts of expenditure in the Government.
45. (C) Legal-rational authority, charismatic authority and tradi-tional authority are the three types of authorities propounded by Max Weber.
46. (C)
47. (D) Mary Parker Follet believes that authority belongs to the job and stays with the job.
48. (D) All the five statements are trueaboutZero-basedbudgeting.
49. (A)
50. (B) The Constitution of India has authorised the Parliament to create a Contingency Fund of India. The Contingency Fund of India enables the Government to meet out any unforeseen expenditure.
51. (D) All the four statements about executive control over Adminis-tration are true.
52. (B) In India the Union Govern-ment is bound to resign after passing of the No-confidence motion.
53. (C) The Railway Budget was separated from the main budget of India in 1921.
54. (D) All the four statements are true about effective citizens’ control over administration.
55. (C) D.M. is responsible for Public Distribution System, implemen-tation of poverty Alleviation pro-grammes and maintenance of law and order.
56. (A) Part IX of the Constitution has the provision for Panchayati Raj.
57. (A) The Parliamentary Com-mittee on Public Undertakings was set up on the recommenda-tion of Krishna Menon Com-mittee in 1964.
58. (B) Nooruddin Committee on the training of Municipal Personnel was constituted in 1963.
59. (D) In practice, the Prime Mini-ster is very powerful at the start of his term and reinforces his strength through periodic reshuf-fles in the Council of Ministers the latter exercises raises the importance of Prime Minister’s Office.
60. (C) The Prime Minister presides over Planning Commission.
61. (D) All the four statements are true about communication.
62. (C)
63. (D) All the four statements are true about Good governance by a municipal body. Good gover-nance by a municipal body among other things depends upon committed and elected representatives, committed municipal bureaucracy, awake-ned citizenry and state vigilance on its functioning.
64. (B) Crisis of identity as stage in the evolution of Public Admi-nistration belongs to the period of 1948-1970.
65. (C) The District Collector is a multi-functional authority and is an important link in the admi-nistration of the state.
66. (C) POSDCORB view of scope of Public Administration has its limitations. Different agencies face different problems. Subs-tanance of administration is dif-ferent from tools of administra-tion.
67. (C) T.N. Dhar was the Chairman of the Second Finance Commiss-ion in Uttar Pradesh.
68. (B) Damodar Valley Corporation (Established in 1948) is the first Public Corporation created in independent India.
69. (D) The Municipal Corporations in U.P. exist at Aligarh, Agra, Allahabad, Kanpur, Ghaziabad, Gorakhpur, Barailly, Meerut, Muradabad, Lucknow, Varanasi total 11.
Note—In Jhansi and Rampur Municipal Corporations do not exit.
70. (C) In a broader sense, Public Administration is related to the functions of Legislature, Execu-tive and Judiciary.
71. (B) Classical Theory of Adminis-trationhasbeencriticisedbecause it neglected the sociological and psychological dimensions and its principles do not have universal relevance.

72. (C)
(A) Laws, delegation etc.—Source of Authority
(B) Positional Theory of Autho-rity —Classical Thinkers
(C) Acceptance theory of Autho-rity —Behaviouralists
(D) Types of authority classifica-tion —Max Weber

73. (C) According to J.D. Mooney—“Coordination is the beginning and the end of all organized efforts.”
74. (D) According to Bagehot “Cabinet is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the execu-tive and Legislative departments together.”
75. (B)
76. (C) The Governor is appointed by the President of India and remains in office during his pleasure.
77. (A) Taylorism became popular as Stakhanovit movement in U.S.S.R.
78. (C) An organisation is a system of consciously co-ordinated acti-vities, always works for a pur-pose : and functions with the help of an informal organisation.
79. (C) Authority and responsibility are inter-related and they co-exist.
80. (A) According to Parkinson’s Law—There is little or no relationship between the work and the size of the staff. Work expands to fill the time available for its completion.
81. (B) Delegation helps in increas-ing sense of responsibility among employees Lack of effective means of internal communica-tion handicaps delegation.
82. (B) An administrative organisa-tionisopensocial system. System approves favours a flexible par-ticipative structure.
83. (B)
84. (C) The Constitution of Public Accounts Committee first sug-gested by the Webly Commission in 1896 now has 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.
85. (D) Headquarters control over the field administration is exercised through the methods of Reports, AdministrativeManuals, Inspection and Investi-gation.
86. (A) Budget ensures the financial and managerial accountability of the executive to the legislature. It also ensures subordinates accountability to superior official in the executive.
87. (D) 73rd Constitutional Amend-ment Act has provided for constitutional status for the Panchayati Raj, one third reser-vation for women, a separate list of subjects, a separate Ministry in the Centre.
88. (B)
89. (D) The Collectors are preoccu-pied with many other things.
90. (C) Nagar Panchayat is included in Urban local government system.
91. (D)
92. (B) NCR and Union Territories have the same boundaries.
93. (D)
94. (C) According to J.D. Mooney Co-ordination is the first pri-nciple of organisation.

95. (A)
(i) Pendleton Act U.S.A.—1883
(ii) All India Service Act—1951
(iii) Fulton Committee—1968
(iv) Kothari Commission—1974-76

96. (B) Persons with specialized educational background enter the civil service in increasing number specialists compete with Generalists in the power-game.
97. (B) Administrative Man’s model represents the real situation by decision making behaviour.

98. (A) According to Gulick three major following factors deter-mine the span of control of an executive.
(i) Element of diversification of functions.
(ii) Element of time.
(iii) Element of space.

99. (C) Development Administration in India is mainly concerned with economic development and promotion of social justice.
100. (D) Span of Control stands for span of communication, span of management, span of units of work and span of attention.

101. (C) The following measures can be taken to reduce staff line conflicts.
(1) Clear demarcation of the responsibilities of the two.
(2) Creation of opportunities for exchanging roles.
(3) Laying emphasis on unity of purpose.

102. (C) Talcott Parsons is known for his Structural-Functional Approach.
103. (D) All the four statements about Comparative Public Admi-nistrative are true.
104. (C) Sequence of steps in Recruitment process—Selection, Appointment Probation and Induction.
105. (C)
106. (B) U.P.State employees welfare corporation is a Government Company.
107. (B) 108. (A)
109. (A) Merit and length of service are the considerations which are taken into account while grant-ing promotion.
110. (C) Election Commission (Article 324) and Finance Commission (Article 280) are the Consti-tutional Commission.
111. (C) According to Barnard leadership depends upon three things—individual, followers and conditions.
112. (C) Greatman theory of leader-ship led to the rise of Trait theory of Leadership.
113. (D) The powers of Parliament in respect of passage of the Budget are enshrined in the Constitution in Art. 112 to 117.
114. (C) The traditional type of budgeting is concerned with line item budgeting.
115. (B)The budget was formally introduced in India in 1860.
116. (A) Administrative decisions in Government can not be evalua-ted through scientific methods because administrative decisions in government involve facts and value premises.
117. (C) Unity of Command means that subordinates must receive command from only one higher official.
118. (B) The classical theorists atta-ched more importance to struc-tural designing of organisation.
119. (D) Behavioural approach stands for use of empirical studies.
120. (A)