Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) Exam, 2008 : Public Administration

Uttarakhand P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2008
(Held on 9-3-2008)
Public Administration : Solved Paper

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :—
List-I (District)
(a) Udham Singh Nagar
(b) Tehri Garhwal
(c) Chamoli
(d) Champawat
List-II (Headquarters)
1. Champawat
2. Gopeshwar
3. Rudrapur
4. New Tehri
5. Bagheswar
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 2 5 3 4
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 4 3 5 1

2. The person for the office of the Chief Secretary in a State is chosen :
1. from among the I.A.S. Officers.
2. by a Selection Board
3. by the Chief Minister
4. by the Union Home Minister.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 only

3. The functions of the Chief Secretary include :
(A) to exercise control over the whole Secretariat
(B) to advise the Chief Minister on all matters
(C) to act as a spokesman of the State Government
(D) All of the above

4. Which one of the following statements about Audit in India is not correct ?
(A) It is a means of legislative control
(B) It is part of internal control over administration
(C) C and A.G. heads its organization
(D) C and A.G’s powers are determined by the Parliament

5. Who of the following has said about the Planning Commission “…… The Planning Commission has, in some measures, earned the reputation of being a parallel Cabinet and, sometimes, a super cabinet” ?
(A) Ashok Chandra
(B) D.R. Gadgil
(C) K. Santhanam
(D) 1st Administrative Reforms Commission

6. The C and AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of :
(A) Municipal institutions
(B) State Governments
(C) Government Companies
(D) Central Government

7. Functions of the National Development Council include :
1. considering important issues of national security.
2. prescribing guidelines for preparation of the national plan.
3. assessing the resources required for implementation of the plan.
4. recommending measures necessary for achieving plan objectives.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

8. The Committee on subordinate legislation ensures that :
(A) the rules and orders do not have any intention to impose taxes
(B) legislation does not involve any expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(C) jurisdiction of the judiciary is not barred
(D) there is no delay in laying the legislation before the house

9. The Union Executive consists of the :
1. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
2. President of India
3. Central Secretariat
4. Vice President
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

10. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian Administration ?
(A) Legacy of the Past
(B) Welfare and Liberal Administration
(C) Despotic Administration
(D) Decentralized Administration

11. Disciplinary Officer for personnel of Group ‘C’ and ‘D’ in the Central Government is :
(A) Secretary of the concerned Department
(B) President of India
(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(D) Minister of the concerned Department

12. Which of the following organization are under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India ?
1. Central Vigilance Commission
2. Central Administrative Tribunal
3. Department of official language
4. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel National Police Academy.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4

13. Consider the following two statements :
Assertion (A) : UPSC is an independent organization.
Reason (R) : UPSC is a constitutional body.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

14. Given below are two statements :
Assertion (A) : Five Year Plans in India are approved by the National Development Council.
Reason (R) : Each and every State Chief Minister is the member of the Standing Committee of the National Development Council.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

15. Being the Principal Law Officer of the Government of India, the Attorney General
1. gives advice to the President of India on all important legal matters.
2. attend meetings of the Parliament on important issues.
3. votes in the Lok Sabha on important legal matters.
4. represents the government in the courts on very important legal matters.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All of the above

16. Given below are different stages in problem solving :
1. Collection of relevant information
2. Identification of the problem.
3. Analysis of the information.
4. Development of alternatives.
5. Evaluation of choices.
Select the correct sequences of the above from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 2, 1, 3, 4 and 5
(C) 4, 5, 2, 3 and 1
(D) 4, 1, 5, 3 and 2

17. Formal Communication usually flows in :
(A) six directions
(B) four directions
(C) three directions
(D) nine directions

18. Which one of the following is not correct among the assumptions made by a Theory ‘Y’ leader ?
(A) Expenditure of energy is undesirable.
(B) Self-direction and self-control is desirable.
(C) Self-actualization is a motivating force.
(D) Working conditions conducive for acceptance of responsibilities are desirable.

19. The book ‘Prismatic Society Revisited’ has been authored by :
(A) Robert A. Dahl
(B) Robert A. Merton
(C) Fred W. Riggs
(D) G.M. Gaus

20. Arrange the various phases of evolution of Public Administration in chronological order :
1. Politics–Administration Dichotomy
2. Crises of Identify.
3. Search for Universal Principles.
4. Era of Challenge.
5. Public Policy Perspective.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 2
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 3

21. Which of the following are the British legacies ?
1. Planning Commission.
2. District Administration.
3. Civil Services.
4. Ministerial Resposibility.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4

22. “Public Administration is detailed and systematic application of law.”
The above definition has been given by :
(A) L. D. White
(B) Luther Gullick
(C) E.N. Gladden
(D) Woodrow Wilson

23. Which of the following are the three aspects of Science of Public Administration discussed mainly in Kautilya’s Arthashastra ?
1. Principles of Public Administration
2. Principles of Financial Administration
3. Machinery of Government
4. Personnel Management
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

24. Who of the following described recruitment as the “Corner stone of whole personnel administration” ?
(A) Glenn O. Stahl
(B) L. D. White
(C) F. A. Nigro
(D) None of the above

25. The President of India addresses his letter of resignation, when wanting to do so, to the :
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Vice-President
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Prime Minister

26. The Mayor of a City Corporation in Uttarakhand :
(A) is elected directly by people
(B) is elected from among themselves by Corporators
(C) is elected by its Executive Committee
(D) is the nominee of the majority party in the Corporation

27. A Directorate :
1. is office of the executive head of a department.
2. functions directly under the Minister.
3. performs line functions.
4. also acts as a staff agency.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

28. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : The Central Secretariat is a think tank and treasure house of vital information.
Reason (R) : The Secretariat carries out a comprehensive and detailed scrutiny of every issue.
Select correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

29. The four bases of organization as identified by Luther Gullick are :
(A) Planning, Organising, Coordinating, Controlling
(B) Objective, People, Plan, Action
(C) Plead, Persuade, Order, Punish
(D) Purpose, Process, Persons, Place

30. ‘Authority’ and ‘Responsibility’ are governed by the :
(A) Principle of coincidence
(B) Principle of correspondence
(C) Principle of compulsion
(D) Principle of co-ordination

31. ‘Span of Control’ depends upon
1. centralized system of authority
2. type of work to be supervised
3. competence of the supervisor
4. techniques of supervision
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

32. Hierarchy :
1. facilitates delegation of authority
2. establishes superior–subordinate relationships
3. acts as a channel of communication
4. facilitates operation of gang plank
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

33. A formal organization :
1. is a structure of authority
2. is a division of functions
3. consists of individuals
4. reflects social and psychological relationships
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

34. Given below are two statements :
Assertion (A) : The principle of ‘Unity of Command’ emphasizes upon one master.
Reason (R) : In complex government organizations ‘Unity of Command’ becomes easy. In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

35. Decentralization :
1. improves administrative efficiency
2. reduces stress of responsibilities at the headquarter.
3. provides for involvement of insiders in organizational functioning.
4. is responsible for cost-escalation.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

36. The traditional theory of Authority has been opposed by :
1. Max Weber
2. C.I. Bernard
3. H. Simon
4. Mooney and Reiley
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

37. The ‘Line’ agencies :
1. perform functions according to organizational objectives.
2. have authority to take decisions and enforce them.
3. involve insiders of the organization
4. keep outsiders away from the system.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

38. Which of the following statements about ‘Delegation of authority’ are correct ?
1. It should be made to an individual.
2. It should be properly planned.
3. It should be backed by adequate resources.
4. It can be conditional.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

39. Human Relations Theory of Organization focusses on the :
1. individual
2. physical structure
3. functional structure
4. social relationships
5. spirit of participation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 3, 4 and 5

40. Weber’s bureaucratic model has been characterised by his critics as :
1. a machine theory
2. a closed system model
3. suitable for changing environment
4. suitable for creative jobs
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

41. Which of the following types of leadership were delineated by Max-Weber ?
1. Charismatic
2. Traditional
3. Religious
4. Legal-rational
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

42. Which one of the following is not an intrinsic factor of job satisfaction as per the Hygiene Theory of Motivation ?
(A) Achievement
(B) Advancement
(C) Opportunities for growth
(D) Job Security

43. Fredrick Herzbgerg’s Theory of Motivation has listed some elements which are related to job content. Their number is :
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10

44. Factors responsible for bounded rationality include :
1. dynamic nature of objectives
2. imperfect information
3. imcompetence for analysis
4. time constraints
5. personal values
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 4 and 5

45. Factors taken into consideration while using ‘motivation’ as a function of management include :
1. goal
2. physiological deficiency
3. psychological need
4. technique to be used
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

46. “A communication that cannot be understood can have no authority.” The above statement is attributed
to :
(A) Ordway Tead
(B) C.I. Bernard
(C) Millet
(D) Peter Drucker

47. The aspects of organizational communication include :
1. internal communication
2. external communication
3. inter-personal communication
4. intra-personal communication
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

48. Which one of the following is not a stage in Simon’s model of decision making ?
(A) Intelligence
(B) Design
(C) Choice
(D) Participation

49. Which one of the following as qualities of leadership, as mentioned by Barnard is correct ?
(A) Vitality and Endurance
(B) Decisiveness
(C) Persuasiveness and Responsibility
(D) All of the above

50. Which one of the following statements about Decision-making is not correct ?
(A) Every decision is based upon two premises
(B) A factual premise cannot be disproved
(C) A value premise can be tested
(D) Ends and means have their importance

51. Theory ‘Y’ is connected with :
(A) Democratic leadership style
(B) Autocratic leadership style
(C) Laissez-faire leadership style
(D) None of the above

52. Who of the following developed Contingency Theory of Leadership ?
(A) Fred E. Feidler
(B) Likert
(C) Simon
(D) Robert Dahl

53. Robert T. Goelembioski has considered as transitional incident to :
(A) Private Administration
(B) Public Administration
(C) Neo Public Administration
(D) New Public Administration

54. Who of the following did not criticise Politics-administration dichotomy of Woodrow Wilson ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Paul H. Appleby
(C) Marshall E. Dimock
(D) Nicholas Henry

55. Which one of the following statements is correct about New Public Administration ?
(A) It believes in Science of Public Administration
(B) It focusses on Social Administration
(C) It gives priority to the study of structural aspect of organization
(D) It believes in collective decision-making

56. Third phase (1938–1947) of the development of Public Administration is marked by :
1. emphasis on the practical study of Public Administration.
2. emphasis on human behaviour in an organization.
3. doubt regarding non-universality of the principles of Public Administration.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) only 3
(D) 2 and 3

57. Who of the following differentiated Politics and Administration by saying that ‘Politics has to do policies or expression of the State will’ and ‘Administration has to do with the execution of the policies’ ?
(A) Peter Self
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) Frank Goodnow
(D) Dwight Waldo

58. New Public Administration lays emphasis on :
(A) relevance, values, democracy and change
(B) relevance, values, equity and change
(C) relevance, values, efficiency and change
(D) relevance, efficiency, equity and change

59. ‘Public Administration is the Art and Science of Management as applied to affairs of the State.’ Who of the following said this ?
(A) Woodrow Wilson
(B) L.D. White
(C) Frank Marini
(D) Dwight Waldo

60. “Public Administration is detailed and systematic execution of law.” Who of the following has said this ?
(A) L.D. White
(B) Luther Gullick
(C) E.N. Gladden
(D) Woodrow Wilson

61. About the significance of Public Administration who of the following said “The Administrative process is universal” ?
(A) Ordway Tead
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) H. Finer
(D) D. Waldo

62. “Public Administration is characterized by red-tape while Private Administration is free from it.” The statement was made by :
(A) Herbert Simon
(B) Paul H. Appleby
(C) Peter Drucker
(D) Josia Stamp

63. The Minnobrook Conference held in 1988 laid emphasis on :
1. Leadership
2. Constitutional and Legal perspective
3. Policy perspective
4. Social equity and change
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

64. The Conference on New Public Administration in 1960s was held under the patronage of :
(A) Robert T. Golembiewaski
(B) Frank Marini
(C) Fredrickson
(D) Dwight Waldo

65. Consider the following :
Assertion (A) : Comparative Public Administration is crosscultural and cross-national in character.
Reason (R) : Its goal became unattainable.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Correct :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

66. Ecological approach undertakes studies of :
1. dynamics of interaction
2. political environment
3. social realities
4. influence of administrative system
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

67. Which of the following decisionmaking approach is usually advocated by the Policy makers for urban community development in India ?
(A) Mixed approach
(B) Public choice approach
(C) Contingency approach
(D) Participative approach

68. Who of the following scholar/scholars point out that bureaucratic responsibility has to be seen in terms of accountability and ethical behaviour ?
(A) Fesler and Kettle
(B) Rosen
(C) Romzek and Dubnick
(D) Mohit Bhattacharya

69. Civil Servants are trained through :
1. foundation courses
2. on the job programmes
3. field exposures
4. refresher programmes
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

70. The Joint Consultative Machinery in India was established on the recommendation of :
(A) First Pay Commission
(B) Second Pay Commission
(C) Third Pay Commission
(D) Fourth Pay Commission

71. Which one of the following reports laid down the traditional concept of Civil Service neutrality in Britain ?
(A) Masterman Committee Report
(B) Hoover Commission Report
(C) Northcote-Trevelyan Report
(D) Fulton Committee Report

72. The country which practices position classification in Civil Service is :
(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) France
(D) Germany

73. The final work of the Union Public Service Commission in recruitment process is :
(A) Selection
(B) Appointment
(C) Certification
(D) Placement

74. Which one of the following countries permits the right to strike to Civil Servants ?
(A) U.K.
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) U.S.A.

75. Which one of the following illustrates the nature of traditional concept of Civil Service Neutrality ?
(A) Committed
(B) Positive minded
(C) Non-Partisan
(D) Impartial

76. Which one of the following Committee/Commission was associated during British rule with the Civil Services in India ?
(A) Wheeler Commission
(B) Maxwell Committee
(C) Risley Commission
(D) Islington Commission

77. Which of the following statements about Neutrality of Civil Service are correct ?
1. The Civil servants should remain non-political.
2. It developed as a tradition in the U.S.A.
3. The demand for committed bureaucracy has created confusion.
4. The developing countries bureaucracy remained depoliticised.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

78. The advantages of rank classification include :
1. it introduces an element of flexibility.
2. it is more suitable for generalist cadre.
3. it helps in applying the principle of equal pay for equal work.
4. it facilitates matching job requirements with incumbents’s qualifications.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

79. Which one of the following about position classification is not correct ?
(A) It is also known as duties classification.
(B) It is concerned with the person holding the position.
(C) Position acts as the basic unit.
(D) It helps in developing common practices.

80. The correct sequence of the process adopted in recruitment is :
(A) Advertisement, Selection, Appointment, Probation
(B) Advertisement, Selection, Probation, Training.
(C) Advertisement, Appointment, Training, Probation.
(D) Advertisement, Selection, Posting, Probation.

81. The Separation of Accounts and Audit took place in India in the year :
(A) 1950
(B) 1961
(C) 1976
(D) 1990

82. Which one of the following about Accounts is not correct ?
(A) They are statements of facts relating to money.
(B) They are recored to show transactions.
(C) They reveal the financial condition of the organisation.
(D) The cannot be manipulated.

83. Preparation of performance budget was introduced in India on the recommendation of :
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Appleby Report
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(D) Administrative Reforms Commission

84. To enhance legislative literacy and administrative responsibility, the budget system should accept :
(A) Zero Based Budgeting
(B) P.P.B.S.
(C) Performance Budgeting
(D) Professional Scrutiny by experts

85. Which one of the following statements about Budget is not correct ?
(A) It is a policy document
(B) It is merely a tool of resource mobilisation
(C) It is a tool of planning and control
(D) It is a statement of income and expenditure

86. Which one of the following is not a part of the Execution of Budget ?
(A) Release of grants
(B) Feedback on expenditure
(C) Audit of expenditure
(D) Reappropriation, when required

87. Audit :
1. is a means of legislative control.
2. is usually regulatory in nature.
3. is concerned with the propriety of expenditure.
4. can be performance related.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

88. The stages involved in the enactment of the Budget include :
1. Presentation
2. Voting on demands for grants
3. General discussion
4. Passing of Financial Bills
5. Passing of Appropriation Bill
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above five stages ?
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 1, 3, 2, 5 and 4
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2 and 5
(D) 1, 2, 5, 4 and 3

89. Non-votable items of expenditure, by the Parliament, include :
1. emoluments and allowances of the President.
2. emoluments and allowances of Vice-President.
3. salary and allowances of C and A.G.
4. salary and allowances of the Chief Vigilance Commissioner Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

90. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year :
(A) 1921
(B) 1922
(C) 1925
(D) 1926

91. In the process of passing the budget, which one of the following is not in the purview of the Legislature?
(A) Give assent to the demand
(B) Reduce the demand
(C) Refuse the demand
(D) Increase and demand

92. The studies of Comparative Public Administration came to decline because :
(A) they were involved in trivialities
(B) they exhibited arrogance of developed countries
(C) they indulged in comparison of cultures
(D) they were over shadowed by Fred Riggs

93. Which one of the following is not included in the types of leadership, as distinguished by M.P. Follett ?
(A) Leadership of position
(B) Leadership of personality
(C) Leadership of learning
(D) Leadership of function

94. The Comparative Administration Group (CAG) in U.S.A. was formed in the year :
(A) 1959
(B) 1960
(C) 1961
(D) 1962

95. Advantages of ‘Right to Information’ as a means of Citizens’ control over administration include :
1. Administration becomes more accountable to people.
2. It increases the gap between administration and people.
3. It reduces chances of abuse of authority.
4. It reduces scope for corruption in administration.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

96. Who of the following said :
‘I always consider the question time in the House is one of the finest examples of Democracy ?’
(A) E. Attlee
(B) W. Wilson
(C) Churchill
(D) Chamberlin

97. Which one of the following is the tool of Executive Control over Public Administration ?
(A) Civil Service Code
(B) Budget
(C) Hierarchical system
(D) All of the above

98. The subject of ‘Ensuring transparency and Right to Information’ was included in the agenda of the Chief Ministers’ Conference in the year :
(A) 1996
(B) 1997
(C) 1998
(D) 2002

99. The mechanisms for citizen’s control over administration include :
1. Ombudsman system
2. Central Vigilance Commission
3. General elections
4. Pressure Groups
5. Right to Information
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(D) 2, 3, 4 and 5

100. Administrative organisations are mainly responsible to :
1. Legislature
2. Judiciary
3. Citizens
4. Media
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4

101. Which one of the following is the example of executive control over administration ?
(A) Rules of financial transactions framed by Finance ministry for agencies responsible for expenditure
(B) Issue of ordinance by the President of India
(C) Audit by C and G
(D) Approval of Budget proposals by the President of India.

102. Which one of the following is under the control of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions ?
(A) National Academy of Administration, Mussoorie
(B) Central Vigilance Commission
(C) Joint Consultative Machinery
(D) All the above

103. What is the number of membership including President of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation of Parliament ?
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 22
(D) 30

104. The rules and regulations framed by the administrative authorities can be declared illegal by the courts :
(A) If they violate the limitation inherent in the parent Act
(B) If they violate the provisions of the constitution
(C) If the parent Act violates the provisions of the constitution
(D) In all above conditions

105. The corruption has increased manifold because :
1. There is a close nexus among the politicians, bureaucrates and criminals.
2. The cost of getting scotfree is very high.
3. Reduced fear of punishment.
4. Involvement of higher officials in the corruption.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the above

106. The tools of legislative control over administration are :
1. debates and discussions in the House.
2. censure motion against the government.
3. no confidence motion against the government.
4. consideration and passage of budget by the House.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All of the above

107. Which one of the following statements about the Cabinet Secretary is not correct ?
(A) He is head of the Civil Service
(B) He interacts directly with the bureaucracy in the ministries
(C) He acts as a deity in the annual conference of Chief Secretaries
(D) He presides over the meeting of Secretaries in the Central Government

108. Under the Indian Constitution, the CAG is :
(A) responsible only to the Executive head
(B) responsible to both Parliament and Executive
(C) responsible only to Parliament
(D) independent of both Parliament and the Executive

109. Which of the following is/are not mentioned in the Constitution of India ?
1. Council of Ministers
2. Collective responsibility
3. Resignation of Ministers
4. Office of the Deputy Prime Minister
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 3

110. Assessment of the implementation of national plan from time to time is the function of :
(A) Programme Evaluation Organisation
(B) National Sample Survey Organisation
(C) Union Finance Commission
(D) Union Ministry of Programme Implementation

111. A large number of cases against officials in the courts pertain to :
(A) error of procedure
(B) lack of jurisdiction
(C) error of facts
(D) abuse of discretion

112. Which of the following organization in the centre basically operate as staff agencies ?
1. Ministry of Finance
2. Union Public Service Commission
3. Directorate General of supplies and Disposal
4. Planning Commission of India.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4

113. Comptroller and Auditor General of India :
1. is appointed by the President
2. submits his report to the Parliament
3. controls the financial system of the country
4. upholds the Constitution in respect of financial administration
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

114. Which of the following about President of India are correct ?
1. He/She should not be a member of the Parliament.
2. He/She is a constituent part of Parliament.
3. He/She should be eligible for election as a Lok Sabha member.
4. He/She is directly elected by the people.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All of the above

115. The Civil Service in India :
1. is governed by the norm of anonymity.
2. is not accountable to the Parliament.
3. is protected by the Minister concerned in all kinds of acts.
4. remains accountable to the Minister concerned.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four

116. The relationship between political executive and permanent executive is based on :
(A) ability of Minister
(B) capability of Civil Servant
(C) mutual respect and confidence between Ministers and Civil Servants
(D) All of the above

117. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A) : The Constitution authorises the Parliament to create a new All-India Service.
Reason (R) : Rajya Sabha takes a decision on the basis of recommendation of Lok Sabha in this regard.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

118. The system of open competition as the method of recruitment to Indian Civil Services was introduced
by the :
(A) Charter Act of 1853
(B) Charter Act of 1833
(C) Regulatory Act of 1773
(D) Charter Act of 1754

119. Which of the following departments in the Uttarakhand Government have a Directorate under it ?
1. Education
2. Health
3. Home
4. Agriculture
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

120. The Police force of a district maintains law and order under the general supervision of :
(A) Home Minister of the State
(B) Law Minister of the State
(C) Collector and Magistrate of the District
(D) S.P. of the district

Answers :
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (D)
6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (*) All the options given in the question are correct. The committee on subordinate legislation performs all the four function. It appears that the question is incomplete as the ‘codes’ are not given below.
9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (C)
16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (B)
26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (A) 29. (D) 30. (B) 31. (C) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (A)
36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (C) 40. (A) 41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (C)
46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (D) 50. (C) 51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (A) 55. (B)
56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (B) 59. (D) 60. (D) 61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (D) 65. (B)
66. (B) 67. (D) 68. (D) 69. (D) 70. (B) 71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D)
76. (D) 77. (B) 78. (A) 79. (B) 80. (A) 81. (C) 82. (D) 83. (D) 84. (C) 85. (B)
86. (C) 87. (D) 88. (B) 89. (B) 90. (A) 91. (D) 92. (B) 93. (C) 94. (B) 95. (C)
96. (A) 97. (A) 98. (B) 99. (C) 100. (A) 101. (A) 102. (A) 103. (B) 104. (D) 105. (C)
106. (D) 107. (B) 108. (C) 109. (C) 110. (A) 111. (D) 112. (C) 113. (C) 114. (B) 115. (C)
116. (C) 117. (C) 118. (A) 119. (D) 120. (C)

Uttar Pradesh P.C.S (Pre) Exam : Solved Paper

Public Administration : Solved Paper

(Held On 9-12-2006)

1. While preparing the Budget the Ministry of Finance asks from the Ministries of the Government—
(A) Actual figures of previous year
(B) Sanctioned and revised estimates of the current year
(C) Estimates for the next year
(D) All the above

2. Which of the following state-ments about the significance of Public Administration are cor-rect ?
1. Public Administration is a good creative force in the man’s welfare as its ideal.
2. No Government can exist without administration.
3. One of the main functions of administration is to facilitate social change.
4. Beneficiariesofadministration are almost negligible.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

3. Which one of the following has been suggested by Henri Fayol as an alternative to ‘Through proper channel’ ?
(A) Grapevine
(B) Gangplank
(C) Gossip
(D) Graphic

4. The book “Public Administration in a Time of Turbulence” talks about—
(A) Crisis of American Demo-cracy
(B) New Public Administration
(C) Technological applications in Public Administration
(D) Politics Administration Dichotomy

5. Which one of the following is important features of New Public Administration’ ?
(A) Structural adjustment
(B) Social relevance
(C) Scientific selection of employee
(D) Rationality in decision mak-ing

6. Administration does not in-clude—
(A) Group activity
(B) Co-operation among the members of the group
(C) Co-ordination among activi-ties of participants
(D) Equal participation of mem-bers of the group

7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Woodrow Wilson has defined Administration as a detailed and systematic appli-cation of law.
Reason (R) : Every specific appli-cation of law is not administra-tion.
In the context of the above sentences which of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

8. Who of the following believed that ‘administration essentially involved reconciliation, involv-ing individuals as well as social groups’ ?
(A) Chester Barnard
(B) Henri Fayol
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) M. P. Follet

9. Arrange the following in their correct chronological sequence by using the code given at the end—
1. Minnowbrook Conference
2. Hawthorne Experiments
3. Scientific Management Move-ment
4. Michigan Research
5. Comparative Administration Group
code :
(A) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
(B) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
(D) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3

10. Which of the following factors are responsible for the increasing importance of Public Adminis-tration in modern times ?
1. Emergence of Welfare State.
2. Scientific and technological advancement.
3. Rapid increase in population.
4. Economic planning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

11. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The distinction between Public and Private Administrat ion is narrowing down.
Reason (R) : The New Public Administration stresses upon public choice approach.
Inthecontext of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

12. Each Department-related Stand-ing Committee of the Indian Parliament consists of—
(A) 20 members from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
(B) 30 members from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha
(C) 45 members from only Lok Sabha
(D) 40 Members from only Rajya Sabha

13. Characteristics of Line agencies include—
1. They perform functions necessary to accomplish objectives.
2. They possess authority to issue directives.
3. They come in direct contact with people.
4. They do not come in conflict with staff agencies.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

14. Which one of the following state-ments is not correct regarding the functions and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor Gene-ral of India ?
(A) He examines the accounts of the Union Government and sub-mits his report to the President
(B) He examines the accounts of the State Governments and submits his report to the Governor of the concerned State
(C) He exercises administrative control over the Audit Officers of the State Governments
(D) If any House needs any information from him, he makes it available through Public Accounts Committee

15. The principles of communication as suggested by Chester Barnard include—
1. Channels of communication should be defined.
2. Line of communication must be as direct and short as possible.
3. Line of communication must function without interruption.
4. Communicators serving the system should be trained periodically.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

16. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Herzberg calls satisfiers as intrinsic factors.
Reason (R) : His studies identi-fied ‘dissatisfiers which are called as extrinsic factors’.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

17. Which one of the following is not an assumption of theory ‘y’ as propounded by McGregor ?
(A) Work is as natural as play and rest for human being
(B) Average human being seeks responsibility
(C) Human potentialities are partially utilised by organisa-tions
(D) Human being wants more security than liberty

18. The idea of ‘Bounded rationality in decision making’ was deve-loped by—
(A) Lindblom
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Dror
(D) Chester Barnard

19. Match List-I with List-II and selectthe correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(Theories)
(a) Achievement motivation
(b) Expectancy
(c) Equity
(d) ERG

List-II
(Authors)
1. Victor Vroom
2. Alderfer
3. David McClelland
4. J. Stay Adams
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 4 2 1

20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(Models of Decision)
(a) Bounded Rationality Model
(b) Incremental Model
(c) Mixed Scanning Model
(d) Optimal Model

List-II
(Propounder)
1. Dror
2. Etizioni
3. Lindblom
4. Herbert Simon
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 2 4 3 1

21. The concept of ‘Linking Pin’ was propounded by—
(A) Mayo
(B) Likert
(C) Herzberg
(D) Maslow

22. Who of the following charac-terises the powers and authority of bureaucracy as ‘New Des-potism’ ?
(A) Harold Laski
(B) Ramsay Muir
(C) Lord Hewart
(D) Lord Acton

23. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In Barnard’s view Authority is not a command but the acceptance of the order by the juniors.
Reason (R) : Behaviouralists believe that Hierarchy is the best way to command and control juniors.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

24. The Path-Goal theory of leader-ship was developed by—
(A) Evans and Robert House
(B) Alderfer and Evans
(C) Hersey and Blanchard
(D) Blake and Mouton

25. Consider the following two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : Co-ordination is collective action of persons while co-operation is synchronization of efforts.
Reason (R) : Co-ordination results in harmonious and uni-fied actions to a stated objective.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

26. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A sound recruit-ment policy is a must for proper and effective personnel admini-stration.
Reason (R) : A neutral personnel system ensures efficiency in administration.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

27. Which of the following are safe-guards against the evils of bureaucracy ?
1. Decentralisation of authority.
2. Fair and efficient personnel management.
3. Centralisation of authority.
4. Effective control of the Parliament and Cabinet.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four

28. James Buchanan and Gordon Tullock are associated with—
(A) Public Choice Theory
(B) New Public Management
(C) Good Governance
(D) Entrepreneurial Govern-ment

29. Who of the following thinkers is known as ‘Prophet in Manage-ment’ ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Mary Parker Follet
(C) Elton Mayo
(D) F. W. Taylor

30. Which one of the following state-mentsisnotapplicableto Herbert Simon’s decision making model ?
(A) Administrative man maxi-mises.
(B) Factual elements can be evaluated.
(C) Most decisions are com-posite.
(D) Decisions can be influenced.

31. Four systems of leadership were developed by—
(A) Keith Davis
(B) Likert
(C) Robert House
(D) Fred Fiedler

32. Match List-I with List-II in respect of difference between Public Administration and Pri-vate Administration and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(Views of )
(a) Paul H. Appleby
(b) Sir Josia Stamp
(c) Herbert Simon
(d) Peter Drucker

List-II
(Difference on account of)
1. Red-tape
2. Performance management
3. Public accountability
4. Service motive
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 1 4 2

33. Which one of the following statements about the training of personnel is not correct ?
(A) It is an investment in human resource development.
(B) Training can be only formal.
(C) It is a tool of improving the efficiency of personnel.
(D) It helps to raise the morale of personnel.

34. Which one of the following areas was not recommended by the Administrative Reforms Com-mission for creation of All India Specialist Services ?
(A) Economic Administration
(B) Industrial Administration
(C) Agriculture and Rural Deve-lopment
(D) Urban employment and poverty alleviation.

35. According to Riggs ‘Sala’ repre-sents—
(A) The administrative sub-system of a prismatic society.
(B) The administrative sub-system of a diffracted society.
(C) The administrative sub- system of a fused society.
(D) The administrative sub-system of a democratic society.

36. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The Rajamannar Committee recommended the abolition of IAS and IPS.
Reason (R) : The IAS and IPS violate the principles of fede-ralism and ministerial responsi-bility at the State level.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

37. Recruitment to the lower ranks of Civil Services is made by—
(A) Administrative Staff College
(B) Ministry of Personnel
(C) Staff Selection Commission
(D) Union Public Service Com-mission

38. The Theory of Scientific Mana-gement basically deals with—
(A) Human behaviour
(B) The best way
(C) Cybernatic system
(D) Informal groups

39. Mid-career training in the IAS and IPS helps in developing—
1. Conceptual skills
2. Professional skills
3. Behavioural skills
4. Pedagogical skills
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4

40. Which one of the following countries provides maximum facilities to Civil Servants for participating in political autho-rities ?
(A) Canada
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Switzerland
(D) U.K.

41. Fulton Committee submitted its report on British Civil Service in the year—
(A) 1960
(B) 1966
(C) 1968
(D) 1970

42. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Consti-tution enjoins that “No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law” ?
(A) Article 113
(B) Article 117
(C) Article 203
(D) Article 265

43. Project formulation does not look at—
(A) That the project is tech-nically sound.
(B) That it provides a good economic return.
(C) That it aims at moral uplift of society.
(D) That it is capable of being completed with available resour-ces.

44. In India, who of the following is responsible for the detailed maintenance of accounts of expenditure in the Government ?
(A) Accountant General
(B) Secretary of the Administra-tive Department
(C) Director of Treasuries
(D) Finance Secretary

45. Which one of the following has not been included in the classification of Authority by Max-Weber ?
(A) Legal rational authority
(B) Charismatic authority
(C) Political authority
(D) Traditional authority

46. In the writing of which of the following thinkers, efficiency is a dependent variable ?
1. Gulick and Urwick
2. Riggs
3. Weber
4. Simon
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

47. Which one of the following thinkers believed that the “authority belongs to the job and stays with the job” ?
(A) Oliver Sheldon
(B) Chester Barnard
(C) Herbert Simon
(D) Mary Parker Follet

48. Which of the following are the advantages of Zero-based bud-geting ?
1. It eliminates low-priority pro-grammes.
2. It improves programme effec-tiveness dramatically.
3. It presents the programmes and accomplishments in financial and physical terms.
4. It lays highest emphasis on programmes in order to obtain more finance.
5. It reduces tax incidence.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(D) All the five

49. Who of the following said that “the real significance of the budget system lies in providing for the orderly administration of financial affairs of Govern- ment” ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) A. Wildavasky
(C) Chris Argyris
(D) Lindblom

50. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India has authorised the Parliament to create a Conting-ency Fund of India.
Reason (R) : The Contingency Fund of India enables the Government to meet out any unforeseen expenditure.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

51. Executive control out adminis-tration is exercised through—
1. Execution of administrative policy.
2. Order issued by supervisors.
3. Necessity to obtain prior approval.
4. System of rewards and punishments.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

52. In India the Union Government is bound to resign after passing of the—
(A) Censure motion
(B) No-confidence motion
(C) Adjournment motion
(D) Calling attention motion

53. The Railway Budget was separa-ted from the main budget of India in—
(A) 1860
(B) 1919
(C) 1921
(D) 1935

54. Which of the following are means of effective citizens’ control over administration ?
1. Creation of good number of public welfare committees.
2. Intellectuals coming forward and taking the lead.
3. Responsible behaviour of political parties.
4. Associaton of people with decision-making process at appropriate levels.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

55. Which one of the following is not the responsibility of District Magistrate ?
(A) Public distribution system.
(B) Implementation of poverty alleviation programmes.
(C) Collection of Income Tax
(D) Maintenance of law and order.

56. In which one of the following parts of the Constitution of India has the provision for Panchayati Raj been made ?
(A) IX
(B) IV
(C) III
(D) IX A

57. The Parliamentary Committee on Public Undertakings was set up on the recommendation of—
(A) Krishna Menon Committee
(B) Appleby Committee
(C) Estimates Committee
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General

58. Nooruddin Committee on the training of Municipal Personnel was constituted in the year—
(A) 1962
(B) 1963
(C) 1964
(D) 1965

59. In practice, the Prime Minister is very powerful at the start of his term and reinforces his strength through periodic reshuffles in the Council of Ministers. The latter exercise raises the impor-tance of—
(A) Parliament
(B) Ministries
(C) Cabinet Secretariat
(D) Prime Minister’s Office

60. The Prime Minister presides over—
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Knowledge Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Population Commission

61. Communication
1. is shared understanding of a shared purpose.
2. is meeting of minds on common issues.
3. always follows the formal structure.
4. has to be understood in order to have force of authority.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

62. Which one of the following is not involved in the preparation of plan for development in a district of Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) Gram Panchayat
(B) Kheshtra Panchayat
(C) D.R.D.A.
(D) District Planning Committee

63. Good governance by a municipal body, among other things, depends upon—
1. Committed elected represen-tatives.
2. Committed municipal bureaucracy.
3. Awakened citizenry.
4. State vigilance on its func-tioning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

64. Crisis of identity as a stage in the evolution of Public Admini-stration belongs to the period—
(A) 1940 – 47
(B) 1948 – 70
(C) 1971 – 90
(D) 1991 onwards

65. The District Collector
1. is a multi-functional autho-rity.
2. works on the principle of anonymity.
3. has no concern with election.
4. is an important link in the administration of the State.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3

66. Which of the following state-ments about the scope of Public Administration are true ?
1. Posdcorb view of scope of Public Administration has its limitations.
2. Different agencies face different problems.
3. Substance of administration is different from tools of administration.
4. posdcorb view is subject-oriented.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

67. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Second Finance Commission in Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) A. P. Singh
(B) Yashpal Singh
(C) T. N. Dhar
(D) B. N. Tiwari

68. Which one of the following is the first Public Corporation created in independent India ?
(A) Life Insurance Corporation
(B) Damodar Valley Corpora-tion
(C) Food Corporation
(D) Central Warehousing Cor-poration

69. Which one of the following does not have a Municipal Corpora-tion ?
(A) Varanasi
(B) Meerut
(C) Gorakhpur
(D) Rampur

70. In a broader sense, Public Administration is related to the functions of—
1. Legislature
2. Executive
3. Government
4. Judiciary
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

71. Classical Theory of Administra-tion has been criticized because
1. it is an unscientific theory of organisation.
2. it neglected the sociological and psychological dimen-sions.
3. its principles do not have universal relevance.
4. it treats an organisation “as an open system”.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) Laws, delegation etc.
(b) Positional theory of Autho-rity
(c) Acceptance theory of Autho-rity
(d) Types of authority classifica-tion

List-II
1. Behaviouralists
2. Max Weber
3. Classical Thinkers
4. Source of Authority
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 2 1 4 3

73. “Co-ordination is the beginning and the end of all organised efforts.” This statement was made by—
(A) Luther Gulick
(B) Woodrow Wilson
(C) J. D. Mooney
(D) F. M. Marx

74. Who of the following said that ‘Cabinet’ is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the executive and the legislative departments together ?
(A) Lowell
(B) Laski
(C) Muir
(D) Bagehot

75. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Prime Minister is the Primus enter pares in a Cabinet form of Government.
Reason (R) : His position is undermined by the dominant leaders of political parties in a Coalition Government.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

76. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The Governor is appointed by the President of India and remains in office during his pleasure.
Reason (R) : The power to hire and fire the Governor is exclu-sively available to the President.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

77. Taylorism became popular as ‘Stakhanovit movement’ in—
(A) U.S.S.R.
(B) Germany
(C) Britain
(D) Japan

78. An organisation
1. consists of unstructured rela-tionshipsbetween individuals
2. is a system of consciously co-ordinated activities
3. always works for a purpose
4. functions with the help of an informal organisation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

79. Which one of the following statements about ‘Responsibility’ is NOT correct ?
(A) Responsibility is the obliga-tion of a person to achieve mutually determined results
(B) Operating responsibility is delegated to the subordinates
(C) Authority and responsibility exist independently
(D) Ultimate responsibility can-not be delegated

80. Which of the following statements about Parkinson’s Law are true ?
1. There is little or no relation-ship between the work and the size of the staff.
2. Work expands to fill the time available for its com-pletion.
3. Parkinson’s Second Law states that expenditure rises to meet income.
4. The growth of administra-tive hierarchies is dependent upon the increase in work.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

81. Which of the following state-ments about ‘Delegation’ are correct ?
1. It helps in increasing sense of responsibility among emplo-yees.
2. Implementation of critical programmes needs extensive delegation.
3. Lack of effective means of internal communication han-dicaps delegation.
4. It facilitates approval of new programmesbysubordinates.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 4

82. Consider the following state-ments—
Assertion (A) : An adminsitra-tive organisation is an open social system.
Reason (R) : Systems approach favours a flexible participative structure.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

83. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) Charismatic authority
(b) Legalrational authority
(c) Traditional authority
(d) Legitimate authority

List-II
1. Obedience to the ruler.
2. Obedience by virtue of per-sonal trust.
3. Obedience because of adher-ence to rules and proce-dures.
4. Obedience of the command as voluntary.
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 4 1 2

84. The constitution of Public Accounts Committee, first sug-gested by the Webly Commission in 1896, now has members from—
(A) Lok Sabha only
(B) Rajya Sabha only
(C) Both the Houses
(D) AsnomineesofthePresident

85. Headquarters’ control over field administration is exercised through the methods of—
1. Reports
2. Administrative Manuals
3. Inspection
4. Investigation
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four

86. Which of the following are deter-mined by the budget ?
1. Financial and managerial accountability of the execu-tive to the legislature.
2. Subordinate’s accountability to superior official in the executive.
3. Legislative accountability to the judiciary.
4. Government departments’ accountability to the Finance Commission.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 4

87. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act has provided for—
1. constitutional status to Panchayati Raj bodies.
2. one-third reservation for women.
3. a separate test of subjects.
4. a separate Ministry in the Centre.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) All the four

88. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) The Ecology of Public Administration
(b) The Golden Book of Mana-gement
(c) The Administrative State
(d) Economy and Society

List-II
1. Urwick
2. Riggs
3. Weber
4. Waldo
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 1 3 4

89. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The role of the Collector in developmental functions has decreased during the past few years.
Reason (R) : The Collectors are preoccupied with many other things.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct expla-nation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

90. Which one of the following is not included in the Panchayati Raj System ?
(A) Zilla Panchayat
(B) Village Panchayat
(C) Nagar Panchayat
(D) Kheshtra Panchayat

91. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(a) Centralization
(b) Decentralization
(c) Demerit of centralization
(d) Demerit of decentralization

List-II
1. Delay in securing action by the field officials.
2. Unsuitable for dealing with emergencies.
3. Concentration of authority at top level.
4. Transfer of authority to lower levels.
code :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 3 4 1 2

92. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) N.C.R. and Union Territory of Delhi are two entities
(B) N.C.R. and Union Territory of Delhi have same boundaries
(C) U.T. of Delhi has one single Local Government institution
(D) Development of N.C.R is the sole concern of Central Govern-ment

93. Given below are two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : The election system and working of Panchayati Raj institutions is similar in all the States.
Reason (R) : 73rd Amendment has introduced certain unifor-mity in the Panchayati Raj system.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

94. Who of the following said that co-ordination is the first princi-ple of organisation ?
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Williams
(C) James D. Mooney
(D) Chester Barnard

95. Select the correct sequence of the following administrative events by using the code given at the end—
1. Pendleton Act, U.S.A.
2. All India Service Act.
3. Setting up of Kothari Com-mission on Recruitment Policy and Selection Method.
4. Constitution of Fulton Com-mitteeon British Civil Service.
code :
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3
(B) 2, 3, 1, 4
(C) 3, 4, 2, 1
(D) 4, 3, 1, 2

96. Which of the following state-ments are correct ?
1. The generalist-specialist con-troversy is dead now.
2. Persons with specialized educational background enter the civil service in increasing number.
3. Specialists compete with generalists in the power-game.
4. A generalist by virtue of his grooming is disliked by political executives in the Secretariat.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

97. ‘Administrative Man’ model represents the real situation by—
(A) Organisation behaviour
(B) Decision-making behaviour
(C) Money-making behaviour
(D) Supportive behaviour

98. According to Gulick, three major factors determine the ‘span of control’ of an executive.
Which one of the following is not the factor ?
(A) Element of purpose
(B) Element of time
(C) Element of space
(D) Element of diversification of functions

99. Development Administration in India is mainly concerned with—
(A) The development of heavy industries
(B) Maintenance of law and order
(C) Economic development and promotion of social justice
(D) Redressal of public grie-vances

100. ‘Span of Control’ stands for—
1. Span of communication
2. Span of management
3. Span of units of work
4. Span of attention
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

101. Which of the following are cor-rect as measures to reduce line-staff conflicts ?
1. Clear demarcation of the responsibilities of the two.
2. Creation of opportunities for exchange of roles.
3. Laying emphasis on unity of purpose.
4. Maintenance of anonymity by staff agencies.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) All the four

102. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Talcott Parsons is known for his Structural-Func-tional Approach.
Reason (R) : Functionally dif-fused, functionally specific and intermediate societies cannot be compared.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

103. The Comparative Public Admi-nistration emphasizes that—
1. The Principles of Public Administration are seriously inadequate.
2. Any proper discipline must have complementary pure and applied aspects.
3. Organisation must be viewed as embedded in specific cultures and poli-tical settings.
4. Both the study and practice of administration are per-vasively value-loaded,
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

104. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of steps in Recruitment process ?
(A) Induction, Selection, Proba-tion and Appointment
(B) Selection, Appointment, Probation and Induction
(C) Appointment, Probation, Selection and Induction
(D) Selection, Probation, Induc-tion and Appointmen

105. Consider the following two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : Job-oriented supervisors do not permit the participation of subordinates in decision-making process.
Reason (R) : They exert little pressure on subordinates.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explana-tion of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

106. U.P. State Employees Welfare Corporation is a—
(A) Public Corporation
(B) Government Company
(C) Joint Stock Company
(D) Registered Society

107. Who of the following was the first to make a distinction bet-ween ‘power’ and ‘authority’ ?
(A) M. P. Follett
(B) Max Weber
(C) Kautilya
(D) Frank Goodnow

108. During the course of working of personnel, learning and achiev-ing administrative efficiency is known as—
(A) Informal training
(B) Formal training
(C) Post-entry training
(D) Orientation training

109. Which of the following consi-derations are taken into account while granting promotion ?
1. Merit
2. Length of Service
3. Integrity
4. Age
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the four

110. Which of the following are Constitutional Commissions in India ?
1. Election Commission
2. Planning Commission
3. Human Rights Commission
4. Finance Commission
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
code :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

111. Consider the following two state-ments—
Assertion (A) : According to Chester Barnard, leadership depends upon three things – individual, followers and the conditions.
Reason (R) : According to Chester Barnard, there are three styles of leadership-trait, beha-vioural and situational.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explana-tion of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

112. ‘Greatman’ Theory of Leader-ship led to the rise of—
(A) Behavioural Theory of Leadership
(B) Situational Theory of Leadership
(C) Trait Theory of Leadership
(D) None of the above

113. The powers of Parliament in respect of passage of the Budget are enshrined in the Constitu-tion in—
(A) Art. 114
(B) Art. 113 & 203
(C) Art. 265 to 267
(D) Art. 112 to 117

114. The traditional type of budget-ing is concerned with—
(A) Program Budgeting
(B) Lump-sum Budgeting
(C) Line-item Budgeting
(D) Performance Budgeting

115. The Budget was formally intro-duced in India in—
(A) 1857
(B) 1860
(C) 1868
(D) 1919

116. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Administrative decisions in Government cannot possibly be evaluated through scientific methods.
Reason (R) : Administrative decisions in Government involve facts and value premises.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?
code :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explana-tion of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

117. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of the pri-nciple of ‘Unity of Command’ ?
(A) More than one superior official should command the subordinates
(B) There should be uniformity in commands by higher officials
(C) Subordinates must receive command from only one higher official.
(D) Subordinate should follow the commands from all the superior officials

118. The classical theorists attached more importance to—
(A) Role of people in organisa-tion
(B) Structural designing of organisation
(C) Inter-personal relations in organisation
(D) Rational bureaucracy

119. Which one of the following is correct about ‘Behavioural Approach’ ?
(A) Use of traditional tools of analysis.
(B) Use of non-ecological studies.
(C) Belief in philosophical defi-nition of the term.
(D) Use of empirical studies.

120. ‘Acceptance theory of Autho-rity’ was propounded by—
(A) Chester Barnard
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Robert Merton
(D) Elton Mayo

Answers with Explanations :
1. (D)
2. (C) Public Administration is a good creative force in the man’s welfare as its ideal. No Govern-ment can exist without admini-stration. One of the main func-tions of administration is to facilitate social change.
3. (B)Henri Fayol has suggested Gangplank as an alternative to ‘Through proper channel’ in the organisation.
4. (B) The book Public Adminis-tration in a Time of Turbulence by Dwight Waldo in (1971) talks about New Public Adminis-tration.
5. (B)Social relevance is the impor-tant feature of New Public Admi-nistration.
6. (D)Administration includes group activity, cooperation among the members of the group and coordination among the activities of participants.
7. (C)Woodrow Wilson defined Public Administration as detai-led and systematic study of law.
8. (A)AccordingtoChester Barnard Administration essentially is related to reconciliation, involv-ing individual as well as social groups.

9. (B)The correct chronological sequence of the major events in Public Administration—
1. Scientific Management Movement.
2. Hawthorne Experiments (1924-1932)
3. Michigan Research (1946).
4. Comparative Administrative Group (1960)
5. Minnowbrook Conference (1968).

10. (D)The factors responsible for the increasing importance of Public Administration in modern times are as follows—
1. Emergence of welfare state.
2. Scientific and technological advancement.
3. Rapid increase in popula-tion.
4. Economic planning.

11. (C)The distinction between Public and Private Administra-tion is narrowing down.
12. (B)Each Department-related Standing Committee of Indian Parliament consist of 45 mem-bers—30 members from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha.

13. (C) Characteristics of the Line Agencies include—
1. They perform functions necessary to accomplish objectives.
2. They possess authority to issue directives.
3. They come in direct contact with people.

14. (C)Comptroller Auditor General examines the account of the Union Government and submits his report to the President. He examines the accounts of the State Government and submits his report to the Governor of the concerned/state. If any House seeks any information from him he makes it available through PAC.
15. (D)All the four statement are correct.
16. (B)Herzberg calls satisfiers as intrinsic factors. His studies identifier ‘dissatisfiers’ which he calls ‘extrinsic factors’.
17. (D) y theory propounded by Douglas McGregor assumes that work is as natural as play and rest for human being. Average human being seeks responsibility and human potentialities are partially utilised by organi-sations. Emphasis on security is not inherent human charac-teristic but a consequence of experience.
18. (B) The idea of Bounded rationa-lity in decision making was developed by Herbert Simon.

19. (C) Match the following—
(A) Achievement motivation—David McClelland
(B) Expectancy theory—Victor Vrom
(C) Equity —J. Stay Adams
(D) ERG —Alderfer

20. (A)
(i) Bounded Rationality Model —Herbert Simon
(ii) Incremental Model —Lindblom
(iii) Mixed Scanning Model —Etizioni
(iv) Optimal Model —Dror

21. (B) The concept of linking pen was propounded by Likert.
22. (C) LordHewartcharacterises the powers and authority of bureau-cracy as New Despotism.
23. (B) In Barnard’s view Authority is not a command but the acceptance of the order by the juniors. Behavouralists believe that Hierarchy is the best way to command and control juniors.
24. (A) The Path-Goal theory of leadership was developed by Evans and Robert House.
25. (D) Co-ordination is the synchro-nization of efforts while co-operation is the collective action. Co-ordination results in harmo-nious and unified actions to a related objective.
26. (B) A sound recruitment policy is a must for proper and effective personnel administration. A neutral personnel system ensures efficiency in administration.
27. (C) Decentralisation of authority, fair and efficient personnel management and effective con-trolof theParliamentand Cabinet are safeguards against evils of bureaucracy.
28. (A) James Buchanan and Gordon Tullock are associated with Public Choice Theory.
29. (D)
30. (C) In Herbert Simon decision making model administrative man maximises, factual elements can be evaluated and decisions can be influenced.
31. (B) Rensis Likert developed four system of leadership.
32. (B)
33. (B) Training can both be formal and informal.
34. (D) ARC recommended creation of All India Specialist Services for Economic, Industrial, Agri-cultural and Rural Adminis-tration.
35. (A) According to Riggs ‘Sala’ represents the administrative sub-systemof a prismatic society.
36. (A)
37. (C) Recruitment to the lower ranks of Civil Services is made by Staff Selection Commission.
38. (B) The theory of Scientific Mana-gement basically deals with the best way.
39. (A) Mid-career training in the IAS and IPS helps in developing conceptual skills, professional skills, behavioural skills.
40. (C) Switzerland provides maxi-mum facilities to civil servants for participating in political authorities.
41. (C) Fulton Committee submitted its report on British Civil Services in the year of 1968.
42. (D) Article 265 of the Indian Constitution enjoins “No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law”.
43. (C) Project formulation looks at that the project is technically sound, that it is capable of being completed with available resour-ces and that it provides good economic return.
44. (A) In India, Accountant General is responsible for the detailed maintenance of accounts of expenditure in the Government.
45. (C) Legal-rational authority, charismatic authority and tradi-tional authority are the three types of authorities propounded by Max Weber.
46. (C)
47. (D) Mary Parker Follet believes that authority belongs to the job and stays with the job.
48. (D) All the five statements are trueaboutZero-basedbudgeting.
49. (A)
50. (B) The Constitution of India has authorised the Parliament to create a Contingency Fund of India. The Contingency Fund of India enables the Government to meet out any unforeseen expenditure.
51. (D) All the four statements about executive control over Adminis-tration are true.
52. (B) In India the Union Govern-ment is bound to resign after passing of the No-confidence motion.
53. (C) The Railway Budget was separated from the main budget of India in 1921.
54. (D) All the four statements are true about effective citizens’ control over administration.
55. (C) D.M. is responsible for Public Distribution System, implemen-tation of poverty Alleviation pro-grammes and maintenance of law and order.
56. (A) Part IX of the Constitution has the provision for Panchayati Raj.
57. (A) The Parliamentary Com-mittee on Public Undertakings was set up on the recommenda-tion of Krishna Menon Com-mittee in 1964.
58. (B) Nooruddin Committee on the training of Municipal Personnel was constituted in 1963.
59. (D) In practice, the Prime Mini-ster is very powerful at the start of his term and reinforces his strength through periodic reshuf-fles in the Council of Ministers the latter exercises raises the importance of Prime Minister’s Office.
60. (C) The Prime Minister presides over Planning Commission.
61. (D) All the four statements are true about communication.
62. (C)
63. (D) All the four statements are true about Good governance by a municipal body. Good gover-nance by a municipal body among other things depends upon committed and elected representatives, committed municipal bureaucracy, awake-ned citizenry and state vigilance on its functioning.
64. (B) Crisis of identity as stage in the evolution of Public Admi-nistration belongs to the period of 1948-1970.
65. (C) The District Collector is a multi-functional authority and is an important link in the admi-nistration of the state.
66. (C) POSDCORB view of scope of Public Administration has its limitations. Different agencies face different problems. Subs-tanance of administration is dif-ferent from tools of administra-tion.
67. (C) T.N. Dhar was the Chairman of the Second Finance Commiss-ion in Uttar Pradesh.
68. (B) Damodar Valley Corporation (Established in 1948) is the first Public Corporation created in independent India.
69. (D) The Municipal Corporations in U.P. exist at Aligarh, Agra, Allahabad, Kanpur, Ghaziabad, Gorakhpur, Barailly, Meerut, Muradabad, Lucknow, Varanasi total 11.
Note—In Jhansi and Rampur Municipal Corporations do not exit.
70. (C) In a broader sense, Public Administration is related to the functions of Legislature, Execu-tive and Judiciary.
71. (B) Classical Theory of Adminis-trationhasbeencriticisedbecause it neglected the sociological and psychological dimensions and its principles do not have universal relevance.

72. (C)
(A) Laws, delegation etc.—Source of Authority
(B) Positional Theory of Autho-rity —Classical Thinkers
(C) Acceptance theory of Autho-rity —Behaviouralists
(D) Types of authority classifica-tion —Max Weber

73. (C) According to J.D. Mooney—“Coordination is the beginning and the end of all organized efforts.”
74. (D) According to Bagehot “Cabinet is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the execu-tive and Legislative departments together.”
75. (B)
76. (C) The Governor is appointed by the President of India and remains in office during his pleasure.
77. (A) Taylorism became popular as Stakhanovit movement in U.S.S.R.
78. (C) An organisation is a system of consciously co-ordinated acti-vities, always works for a pur-pose : and functions with the help of an informal organisation.
79. (C) Authority and responsibility are inter-related and they co-exist.
80. (A) According to Parkinson’s Law—There is little or no relationship between the work and the size of the staff. Work expands to fill the time available for its completion.
81. (B) Delegation helps in increas-ing sense of responsibility among employees Lack of effective means of internal communica-tion handicaps delegation.
82. (B) An administrative organisa-tionisopensocial system. System approves favours a flexible par-ticipative structure.
83. (B)
84. (C) The Constitution of Public Accounts Committee first sug-gested by the Webly Commission in 1896 now has 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.
85. (D) Headquarters control over the field administration is exercised through the methods of Reports, AdministrativeManuals, Inspection and Investi-gation.
86. (A) Budget ensures the financial and managerial accountability of the executive to the legislature. It also ensures subordinates accountability to superior official in the executive.
87. (D) 73rd Constitutional Amend-ment Act has provided for constitutional status for the Panchayati Raj, one third reser-vation for women, a separate list of subjects, a separate Ministry in the Centre.
88. (B)
89. (D) The Collectors are preoccu-pied with many other things.
90. (C) Nagar Panchayat is included in Urban local government system.
91. (D)
92. (B) NCR and Union Territories have the same boundaries.
93. (D)
94. (C) According to J.D. Mooney Co-ordination is the first pri-nciple of organisation.

95. (A)
(i) Pendleton Act U.S.A.—1883
(ii) All India Service Act—1951
(iii) Fulton Committee—1968
(iv) Kothari Commission—1974-76

96. (B) Persons with specialized educational background enter the civil service in increasing number specialists compete with Generalists in the power-game.
97. (B) Administrative Man’s model represents the real situation by decision making behaviour.

98. (A) According to Gulick three major following factors deter-mine the span of control of an executive.
(i) Element of diversification of functions.
(ii) Element of time.
(iii) Element of space.

99. (C) Development Administration in India is mainly concerned with economic development and promotion of social justice.
100. (D) Span of Control stands for span of communication, span of management, span of units of work and span of attention.

101. (C) The following measures can be taken to reduce staff line conflicts.
(1) Clear demarcation of the responsibilities of the two.
(2) Creation of opportunities for exchanging roles.
(3) Laying emphasis on unity of purpose.

102. (C) Talcott Parsons is known for his Structural-Functional Approach.
103. (D) All the four statements about Comparative Public Admi-nistrative are true.
104. (C) Sequence of steps in Recruitment process—Selection, Appointment Probation and Induction.
105. (C)
106. (B) U.P.State employees welfare corporation is a Government Company.
107. (B) 108. (A)
109. (A) Merit and length of service are the considerations which are taken into account while grant-ing promotion.
110. (C) Election Commission (Article 324) and Finance Commission (Article 280) are the Consti-tutional Commission.
111. (C) According to Barnard leadership depends upon three things—individual, followers and conditions.
112. (C) Greatman theory of leader-ship led to the rise of Trait theory of Leadership.
113. (D) The powers of Parliament in respect of passage of the Budget are enshrined in the Constitution in Art. 112 to 117.
114. (C) The traditional type of budgeting is concerned with line item budgeting.
115. (B)The budget was formally introduced in India in 1860.
116. (A) Administrative decisions in Government can not be evalua-ted through scientific methods because administrative decisions in government involve facts and value premises.
117. (C) Unity of Command means that subordinates must receive command from only one higher official.
118. (B) The classical theorists atta-ched more importance to struc-tural designing of organisation.
119. (D) Behavioural approach stands for use of empirical studies.
120. (A)